1C8X3, Set 2, Volume 2 (aka Volume 6)

(201) Which colors are the localizer equipment shelter generally painted?

a. International orange and white.

b. Olive drab and black.

c. Brown and tan.

d. Red and white.

a. International orange and white.

(201) How many assemblies support each localizer antenna?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

b. 2.

(202) The maximum wind speed (in mph) the localizer equipment station is designed to withstand is:

a. 50.

b. 70.

c. 90.

d. 110.

b. 70.

(202) How many megahertz (MHz) is the frequency range of radio transmitters in the localizer equipment station?

a. 108 to 112.

b. 324 to 336.

c. 962 to 1,213.

d. 2,250 to 2,259.

a. 108 to 112.

(202) What are the modulation frequencies, measured in hertz (Hz), in the localizer course transmitter?

a. 90, 150, and 2,250.

b. 90, 150, and 1,020.

c. 150 and 2,259.

d. 90 and 2,259.

b. 90, 150, and 1,020.

(202) What number of watts is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) output power of the clearance transmitter in the localizer?

a. 10.

b. 15.

c. 20.

d. 25.

a. 10.

(203) What general function is the first basic operation of the localizer station?

a. Updating status.

b. Radiating the pattern.

c. Controlling the transmitter.

d. Monitoring the radiated pattern.

b. Radiating the pattern.

(203) At which frequency is the clearance (CLR) carrier transmitted in the localizer?

a. Station assigned frequency (SAF) -4.00 kilohertz (kHz).

b. SAF +4.00 kHz.

c. SAF -4.75 kHz.

d. SAF +4.75 kHz.

c. SAF -4.75 kHz.

(203) How many log-periodic dipole (LPD) antennas are there in the localizer antenna array?

a. 7.

b. 10.

c. 14.

d. 16.

c. 14.

(203) The radiation pattern of the course carrier is:

a. wider than clearance pattern.

b. parallel to the clearance pattern.

c. the same as the clearance pattern.

d. narrower than the clearance pattern.

d. narrower than the clearance pattern.

(203) How many monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

b. Two.

(203) What controls the localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters?

a. Control unit.

b. Changeover unit.

c. Clearance monitors.

d. Course transmitters.

d. Course transmitters.

(203) Where is the detected signal from the localizer antenna distribution unit sent?

a. Changeover unit.

b. Far-field monitor.

c. Control unit and transmitters.

d. Course and clearance monitors.

d. Course and clearance monitors.

(203) Which unit is not tied into the control unit of the localizer?

a. Distribution.

b. Changeover.

c. Power supply.

d. Battery backup.

a. Distribution.

(203) The nominal localizer course transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) power in watts (W) and milliwatts (mW) respectively are:

a. 15; 360.

b. 10; 300.

c. 5; 190.

d. 3; 190.

a. 15; 360.

(203) The diode switching network is responsible for:

a. amplifying the switched radio frequency (RF) by high level collector modulation.

b. counting the number of clock pulses and supplying information to data selectors.

c. shaping signals into clean sine waves.

d. routing and switching.

d. routing and switching.

(203) The localizer antenna array has a gain of how many decibels (dB)?

a. 3.

b. 7.

c. 10.

d. 28.

c. 10.

(203) Which antennas are the localizer clearance (CLR) signals applied to simultaneously?

a. Entire array.

b. Middle.

c. Outer.

d. Inner.

d. Inner.

(203) The most likely thing that will happen if an antenna cable is broken or shorted is it will cause:

a. a transmitter changeover.

b. an abnormal indication.

c. a station shutdown.

d. a cable fault alarm.

c. a station shutdown.

(203) Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course (CRS) monitors?

a. Frequency separation.

b. Radio frequency (RF) level.

c. Identification (ID) percent modulation.

d. Width difference in depth of modulation (DDM).

a. Frequency separation.

(203) What is the only difference between the localizer clearance (CLR) monitor and course (CRS) monitor?

a. Frequency of the radio frequency (RF) signals.

b. Measurement of the CLR frequency.

c. Digital readout assembly.

d. Timing pulse generated.

b. Measurement of the CLR frequency.

(203) A 17.2 percent modulation difference converted to difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is:

a. .017.

b. .172.

c. 1.72.

d. 172.

b. .172.

(203) The modulation percentage of the sum of the 90 hertz (Hz) resultant and the 150 Hz resultant should always total:

a. 20.

b. 40.

c. 50.

d. 100.

b. 40.

(203) Where on the airfield are you located if during a ground check you are taking a measurement from the 35-degree survey checkpoint?

a. Runway centerline.

b. Runway threshold.

c. Near field arc.

d. Far field arc.

c. Near field arc.

(203) Why are localizer course (CRS) and clearance (CLR) transmitter's output frequencies separated by 9.5 kilohertz (kHz)?

a. Accommodates the bandwidth of the combined signals.

b. Prevents the signals from combining.

c. Prevents incidental signal jamming.

d. Matches aircraft receiver design.

b. Prevents the signals from combining.

(203) Which localizer output would result in a change in the capture points?

a. 12 watt (W) course (CRS) carrier plus sideband (CSB).

b. 200 milliwatt (mW) CRS sideband only (SBO).

c. 10 W clearance (CLR) CSB.

d. 15 W CRS CSB.

a. 12 watt (W) course (CRS) carrier plus sideband (CSB).

(204) Which situation causes a fault condition and initiates equipment transfer in the glide slope (GS)?

a. Abnormal shelter temperature.

b. Abnormal primary power.

c. Single monitor alarms.

d. Dual monitor alarms.

d. Dual monitor alarms.

(204) Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the null-reference glide slope (GS)?

a. Path difference in depth of modulation (DDM).

b. Path radio frequency (RF) level.

c. Ident percent of modulation.

d. Width DDM.

c. Ident percent of modulation.

(205) The glide slope (GS) carrier frequency is modulated with what percentage of depth of modulation per tone?

a. 20.

b. 40.

c. 70.

d. 95.

b. 40.

(205) Which hertz (Hz) signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?

a. 705.

b. 1,410.

c. 2,350.

d. 2,820.

c. 2,350.

(206) Which signal or signals are applied to the lower antenna in the null-reference glide slope (GS)?

a. Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and clearance (CLR).

b. CLR and sideband only (SBO).

c. CSB only.

d. SBO only.

c. CSB only.

(206) The diode switching network (4A9) in the glide slope (GS) differs from the 4A9 in the localizer when considering their length of line, because the GS is:

a. shorter than the localizer.

b. two times that of the localizer.

c. three times that of the localizer.

d. four times that of the localizer.

c. three times that of the localizer.

(206) Which deflection does the airborne indicator show when the aircraft is on the glide path?

a. Nominal 5 microamps.

b. Nominal 1 microamp.

c. Minimum.

d. None.

d. None.

(207) What is the carrier output power range, in watts, of the AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR)?

a. 5 to 10.

b. 10 to 25.

c. 25 to 100.

d. 50 to 150.

c. 25 to 100.

(207) What is the operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) antenna?

a. 100 to 120.

b. 108 to 118.

c. 110 to 116.

d. 112 to 114.

b. 108 to 118.

(208) The AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) transmitter receives ON/OFF control signals from the:

a. control indicator.

b. monitor front panel.

c. digital computer front panel.

d. remote maintenance work center.

a. control indicator.

(208) How many antennas sample the AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) radiated signal and route the signals to the monitor?

a. 10.

b. 12.

c. 14.

d. 16.

d. 16.

(208) The AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) battery assembly can fully recharge in how many hours?

a. 12.

b. 16.

c. 20.

d. 24.

d. 24.

(208) During normal operation, the AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) power monitor sensor provides how many reference volts direct current (VDC) to the control indicator?

a. 5.

b. 12.

c. 20.

d. 24.

c. 20.

(208) The AN/FRN-44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) monitor antennas sample the output signal at degree interval:

a. 11.25.

b. 20.

c. 22.5.

d. 25.

c. 22.5.

(209) The typical (line-of-sight) mileage range for the AN/FRN-44A Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) is:

a. 100.

b. 200.

c. 250.

d. 400.

b. 200.

(209) The AN/FRN-44A Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) is typically controlled and monitored from the:

a. remote maintenance work center (RMWC).

b. facility central processing unit (FCPU).

c. Regional Maintenance Center (RMC).

d. flight check radio (FCR).

c. Regional Maintenance Center (RMC).

(209) The AN/FRN-44A Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) voice component of the composite waveform is provided to:

a. communicate weather and airfield information.

b. communicate station identification (ID).

c. modulate the 480 Hertz (Hz) signal.

d. assist with aircraft guidance.

a. communicate weather and airfield information.

(209) The interval, in seconds, the AN/FRN-44A very high frequency omnidirectional and radio range (VOR) identification (ID) code is transmitted is:

a. 7.5.

b. 12.

c. 15.

d. 15.5.

a. 7.5.

(210) The AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System can provide bearing and distance information for up to how many aircraft?

a. 50.

b. 100.

c. 150.

d. 200.

b. 100.

(210) The definition of reply delay is the:

a. time from aircraft interrogation to monitor reply.

b. time from monitor interrogation to transponder reply.

c. pulse spacing from monitor interrogation to transponder reply.

d. pulse spacing from transponder interrogation to monitor reply.

b. time from monitor interrogation to transponder reply.

(210) The normal monitored measurement, in microseconds (μs), for X mode reply delay in the AN/FRN-45 tactical air navigation (TACAN) is:

a. .4.

b. .5.

c. 40.

d. 50.

d. 50.

(210) The AN/FRN-45 tactical air navigation (TACAN) pulse spacing measurements are suspended during:

a. auxiliary reference burst (ARB) transmission.

b. north reference burst (NRB) reception.

c. identification (ID) transmission.

d. ID reception.

c. identification (ID) transmission.

(210) Which indication on the modulation generator (mod gen) display will a low power fault give on the AN/FRN-45 tactical air navigation (TACAN) modulation generator (mod gen)?

a. 78.

b. 88.

c. FLT.

d. ERR.

a. 78.

(210) The AN/FRN-45 tactical air navigation (TACAN) maintenance limit displayed for output power is the same as which parameter?

a. Monitored radiated power.

b. Transmitter frequency.

c. Receiver sensitivity.

d. Dead time gate.

a. Monitored radiated power.

(210) Which AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System power supply output, in volts direct current (VDC), is over current and over voltage protected?

a. +10.

b. +17.5.

c. -17.5.

d. +65.

d. +65.

(211) How many monitors must fail or detect a fault for the AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System to shut down?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

b. 2.

(212) The AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System uses pulse coding to:

a. discriminate against interference.

b. prevent intentional receiver jamming.

c. maintain constant transmitter loading.

d. increase antenna gain while transmitting.

a. discriminate against interference.

(212) The microsecond (μs) spacing between the AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System pair pulses in the X mode is:

a. 12.

b. 24.

c. 36.

d. 48.

a. 12.

(212) How many pulse pairs make up an auxiliary reference burst (ARB)?

a. 3.

b. 6.

c. 12.

d. 24.

b. 6.

(212) The total number of pulse pairs transmitted by the AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System is:

a. 7,200.

b. 5,400.

c. 3,600.

d. 1,440.

c. 3,600.

(212) The most important result of maintaining a constant AN/FRN-45 Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System duty cycle is:

a. pattern stability.

b. minimized drift in tuned circuits.

c. simplification the power supply design.

d. assured constant current drain on all circuits.

a. pattern stability.

(212) If an aircraft receives signals from two ground beacons operating on the same frequency, the:

a. weaker signal is almost totally rejected.

b. co-channel interference will block the airborne receiver.

c. distance and the azimuth to the farther station will be displayed to the pilot.

d. two signals will saturate the receiver and cause the bearing indicator to hunt.

a. weaker signal is almost totally rejected.

(212) At which rate, in revolutions per minute, and direction does the AN/FRN-45 tactical air navigation (TACAN) antenna pattern appear to rotate?

a. 900, clockwise.

b. 900, counter-clockwise.

c. 1,350, clockwise.

d. 1,350, counter-clockwise.

a. 900, clockwise.

(213) Which software is the AN/FRN-45C tactical air navigation (TACAN) personal computer (PC) equipped with to communicate with the system equipment?

a. Facility central processing unit (FCPU).

b. Distance measuring equipment (DME).

c. Maintenance data terminal (MDT).

d. Remote status indicator (RSI).

c. Maintenance data terminal (MDT).

(213) The AN/FRN-45C Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) System frequency range, in megahertz (MHz), is:

a. 108 to 118.

b. 962 to 1024.

c. 962 to 1213.

d. 1151 to 1213.

c. 962 to 1213.

(213) In the AN/FRN-45C tactical air navigation (TACAN) X mode, the difference in frequency between the received frequency and assigned transmit (TX) frequency is:

a. 6.3 kilohertz (kHz).

b. 63 kHz.

c. 6.3 megahertz (MHz).

d. 63 MHz.

d. 63 MHz.

(213) The AN/FRN-45C tactical air navigation (TACAN) antenna produces an electrically scanned radiation pattern by modulating the pulsed radio frequency (RF) from the transponder with what two frequencies?

a. 15 and 135 hertz (Hz).

b. 15 and 135 megahertz (MHz).

c. 30 and 9960 Hz.

d. 30 and 9960 MHz.

a. 15 and 135 hertz (Hz).

(214) The AN/FRN-43 unit that measures and checks the Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) signals against established parameters is the:

a. radio transmitter.

b. radio transponder.

c. radio frequency (RF) monitor.

d. local and remote personal computer (PC).

c. radio frequency (RF) monitor.

(214) The Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) unit that monitors the automatic ground check system is the:

a. radio transmitter.

b. radio transponder.

c. radio frequency (RF) monitor.

d. local and remote personal computer (PC).

c. radio frequency (RF) monitor.

(214) The Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) power supply 1A7 is an alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) converter that supplies a volts direct current (VDC) of:

a. 30.

b. 35.

c. 40.5.

d. 45.5.

c. 40.5.

(214) The tactical air navigation (TACAN) coded reply signals are used by aircraft to determine their:

a. direction to the runway.

b. direction to the ground station.

c. distance from the runway.

d. distance from the ground station.

d. distance from the ground station.

(214) One purpose of the squitter pulses transmitted from the tactical air navigation (TACAN) is to:

a. maintain constant transmitter duty cycle.

b. maintain constant aircraft contact.

c. generate reference pulse groups.

d. generate identification pulses.

a. maintain constant transmitter duty cycle.

(215) How is the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System local personal computer (PC) connected to interface with the remote PC?

a. Modem.

b. Optical interface.

c. Control indicator.

d. Radio frequency (RF) monitor.

a. Modem.

(215) What is the primary method of operator control and monitoring of the Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) navigational set?

a. Monitors.

b. Transmitter assembly.

c. Local and remote personal computer (PC).

d. Radio frequency (RF) transmission switch.

c. Local and remote personal computer (PC).

(215) Within the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System, the personal computer (PC) display is divided into how many main windows?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

b. 2.

(216) Which adjustment can air traffic control (ATC) personnel make to the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System control indicator?

a. Operating power.

b. Transmitter frequency.

c. Volume control of audio.

d. Transponder identification (ID) ON/OFF control.

c. Volume control of audio.

(216) The function of the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System coder/decoder (CODEC) section of the control indicator is to:

a. convert return signals from the sites into status indications.

b. convert transmit (TX) signals from the monitors into alarm tones.

c. control the VORTAC identification (ID) signal.

d. control tactical air navigation (TACAN) TX signal.

a. convert return signals from the sites into status indications.

(216) The visual status lamps on the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System control indicator display the:

a. actual status of the remote site.

b. actual status of the control indicator.

c. position of the START/STOP switch on the digital computer.

d. position of the START/STOP switch on the control indicator.

a. actual status of the remote site.

(216) The output of the transmit (TX) section of the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System coder/decoder (CODEC) is controlled by the:

a. ON/OFF switch.

b. START/STOP switch.

c. analog/digital (A/D) converter.

d. digital/analog (D/A) converter.

b. START/STOP switch.

(216) Which circuits are responsible for dividing the incoming audio and carrier signals in the receive section of the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System coder/decoder (CODEC)?

a. Digital/analog (D/A) converters.

b. Analog/digital (A/D) converters.

c. Two-way splitters.

d. Bandpass filters.

d. Bandpass filters.

(216) What is the kilohertz (kHz) frequency of the alarm oscillator circuit in the AN/FRN-43 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System coder/decoder (CODEC)?

a. 4.

b. 3.

c. 2.

d. 1.

d. 1.

(217) Which two systems make up the AN/FRN-43A Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) System?

a. AN/FRN-42A Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) and AN/FRN-43C tactical air navigation (TACAN).

b. AN/FRN-42 VOR and AN/FRN-43 TACAN.

c. AN/FRN-44A VOR and AN/FRN-45C TACAN.

d. AN/FRN-44 VOR and AN/FRN-45 TACAN.

c. AN/FRN-44A VOR and AN/FRN-45C TACAN.

(218) When operating an Instrument Landing System (ILS) as category II, the pilot must be able to fly inbound to a point of interception where the localizer course line intersects the glide path at a point above the:

a. inner marker.

b. middle marker.

c. runway threshold.

d. east end of the runway.

c. runway threshold.

(218) Instrument Landing System (ILS) points A, B, C, D, and E are used to define the limits of:

a. coverage.

b. approach zones.

c. touchdown areas.

d. category I, II, and III systems.

b. approach zones.

(219) If a facility does not meet established tolerances within some specific locations of the service area, the inspector classifies it as:

a. unusable.

b. restricted.

c. unreliable.

d. unrestricted.

b. restricted.

(219) In flight inspection terminology, slow excursions of the electromagnetic course or path are called:

a. course scalloping.

b. alignment error.

c. roughness.

d. bends.

d. bends.

(219) In flight inspection terminology, rhythmic excursions of the electromagnetic course or path defines:

a. course scalloping.

b. alignment error.

c. roughness.

d. bends.

a. course scalloping.

(220) During a localizer low approach run flight check, what is the plus/minus percent of the modulation level tolerance for a CAT I Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

a. 0.2.

b. 0.4.

c. 2.0.

d. 4.0.

d. 4.0.

(220) Which level is not measured during a localizer normal width run flight check?

a. Course width.

b. Identification.

c. Clearances.

d. Symmetry.

b. Identification.

(220) What is the flight check plus/minus percentage tolerance for the localizer width check?

a. 17 of the engineered width.

b. 7.5 of the engineered width.

c. 17 of the commissioned width.

d. 7.5 of the commissioned width.

c. 17 of the commissioned width.

(221) The glide slope (GS) flight inspection procedure that checks phasing of the sideband-only (SBO) signal in relationship to the carrier-plus sideband (CSB) signal is:

a. structure.

b. modulation level.

c. advance and retard.

d. normal width/angle/symmetry.

c. advance and retard.

(221) Which percent of the commissioned angle is the tolerance for the glide angle?

a. 7.5 below and 10 above.

b. 9.0 below and 10 above.

c. 9.5 below and 11 above.

d. 17.0 below and 40 above.

a. 7.5 below and 10 above.

(222) Which Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) flight check inspection report form is used for the localizer?

a. 8240-2.

b. 8240-3.

c. 8240-6.

d. 8240-8.

d. 8240-8.

(223) Which Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) flight check inspection report form is used for the tactical air navigation (TACAN)?

a. 8240-1.

b. 8240-2.

c. 8240-11.

d. 8241-22.

b. 8240-2.

(224) Which meter indicates reverse sensing from the Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR)?

a. To-from.

b. Flag alarm.

c. Crosspointer.

d. Automatic gain control (AGC).

a. To-from.

(224) The flight check meter that indicates a sufficient radio frequency (RF) signal is being received from the Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) facility to make readings on the aircraft indicators reliable is the:

a. to-from.

b. flag alarm.

c. crosspointer.

d. automatic gain control (AGC).

d. automatic gain control (AGC).

(224) Which Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) flight check determines if any unwanted vertical or horizontally polarized electromagnetic waves are being radiated from the VOR antenna assembly?

a. Rotation.

b. Polarization.

c. Course sensitivity.

d. Frequency interference.

b. Polarization.

(224) How many miles must the Terminal Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (TVOR) cover?

a. 15.

b. 20.

c. 25.

d. 30.

c. 25.

(224) The two categories that flight check adjustments normally encounter during a flight inspection are signal level and:

a. waveform.

b. azimuth.

c. voltage.

d. power.

b. azimuth.

(224) At which depth percentage is the Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) carrier amplitude modulated by the sideband signals?

a. 15.

b. 20.

c. 30.

d. 40.

c. 30.

(224) A Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) that meets all operating tolerances is classified a:

a. unusable.

b. restricted.

c. satisfactory.

d. unrestricted.

d. unrestricted.

(224) The maximum degree deviation of the Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) course caused by polarization shall not exceed:

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 3.5.

b. 2.

(225) The publication containing detailed historical record guidance is:

a. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 21-2116.

b. TO 00-33A-1001.

c. TO 00-20-1.

d. TO 00-5-1.

c. TO 00-20-1.

(225) How many previous flight inspections must be kept in the facility records?

a. All flight inspections.

b. Only the most recent.

c. The latest three.

d. The latest two.

d. The latest two.