Microorganisms and Human Disease

Flashcards covering key concepts from the lecture on microorganisms and human diseases, focusing on diseases of the respiratory and digestive systems.

What are the major systems discussed in relation to microbial diseases?

a) Nervous System and Endocrine System

b) Lymphatic System and Integumentary System

c) Circulatory System and Skeletal System

d) Respiratory System and Digestive System

Respiratory System and Digestive System.

Which of the following infections are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

a) Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Polio

b) Gastroenteritis, Hepatitis, and Colitis

c) Skin infections, Urinary tract infections, and Sepsis

d) Laryngitis, Tonsillitis, Sinusitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia

Laryngitis, Tonsillitis, Sinusitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia.

What is the primary cause of Scarlet Fever?

a) Streptococcus pyogenes - Group A

b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c) Staphylococcus aureus

d) Escherichia coli

Streptococcus pyogenes - Group A.

Which characteristic clinical symptom is associated with diphtheria?

a) A widespread rash covering the body

b) Severe watery diarrhea

c) Tough grayish membrane forms on throat

d) Intense muscle spasms and paralysis

Tough grayish membrane forms on throat.

Which pathogen commonly causes Otitis Media?

a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b) Chlamydia trachomatis

c) Haemophilus influenzae

d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

What is the main causative agent of a common cold?

a) Adenovirus

b) Rhinoviruses

c) Influenza virus

d) Norovirus

Rhinoviruses.

What type of vaccine is used to prevent diphtheria?

a) MMR vaccine

b) HPV vaccine

c) DPT vaccine (Diphtheria toxoid)

d) Polio vaccine

DPT vaccine (Diphtheria toxoid).

What are the two types of tuberculosis?

a) Latent TB and Active TB

b) Primary TB and Secondary TB

c) Acute TB and Chronic TB

d) Pulmonary TB and Extrapulmonary TB

Pulmonary TB and Extrapulmonary TB.

How is tuberculosis diagnosed?

a) Lumbar puncture and MRI

b) Blood culture and urine analysis

c) X-ray imaging and antibody tests

d) Three sputum specimens and Mantoux tuberculin test

Three sputum specimens and Mantoux tuberculin test.

What organism causes whooping cough?

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b) Bordetella pertussis

c) Streptococcus pyogenes

d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Bordetella pertussis.

What are typical symptoms of pneumonia?

a) Muscle aches, sore throat, and runny nose

b) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

c) Skin rash, joint pain, and fatigue

d) High fever, breathing difficulty, chest pain

High fever, breathing difficulty, chest pain.

How is pneumonia classified?

a) Community-acquired and Hospital-acquired pneumonia

b) Acute and Chronic pneumonia

c) Typical (pneumococcal) and atypical (mycoplasma) pneumonia

d) Bacterial and Viral pneumonia

Typical (pneumococcal) and atypical (mycoplasma) pneumonia.

What clinical picture is indicative of E. coli gastroenteritis?

a) Severe diarrhea and bleeding

b) Rashes and swollen lymph nodes

c) Mild fever and joint stiffness

d) Chronic constipation and abdominal discomfort

Severe diarrhea and bleeding.

What is the cause of Cholera?

a) Shigella dysenteriae

b) Salmonella typhi

c) Vibrio cholerae

d) Campylobacter jejuni

Vibrio cholerae.

What dietary factor is commonly associated with Staphylococcal Food Poisoning?

a) Contaminated water sources

b) Custards, cream pies, ham, poultry

c) Undercooked raw vegetables

d) Raw seafood

Custards, cream pies, ham, poultry.

What is the primary cause of hepatitis A?

a) Contaminated needles

b) Blood transfusions

c) Sexual contact

d) Fecal-oral transmission

Fecal-oral transmission.

What is the clinical test for diagnosing Helicobacter pylori infection?

a) Stool culture

b) Endoscopy with biopsy

c) Carbon urea breath test

d) Blood serology test

Carbon urea breath test.

What is the significance of MacConkey agar in GIT infections?

a) It promotes general bacterial growth.

b) It differentiates between lactose fermenting and non-fermenting bacteria.

c) It selectively grows Gram-positive bacteria.

d) It tests for antibiotic resistance.

It differentiates between lactose fermenting and non-fermenting bacteria.

Which statement describes a characteristic feature of Mycoplasma pneumonia?

a) It causes severe bloody diarrhea.

b) It primarily affects the skin, causing rashes.

c) It is typically associated with a sudden onset and high fever.

d) Also called primary atypical pneumonia, common in young adults.

Also called primary atypical pneumonia, common in young adults.

What type of infections does Clostridium difficile cause?

a) Respiratory tract infections

b) Central nervous system infections

c) Urinary tract infections

d) Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea

Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea.

Which bacterium is linked to peptic ulcer disease?

a) Helicobacter pylori

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Salmonella typhi

d) Escherichia coli

Helicobacter pylori.

What are typical symptoms of lower GIT infections?

a) Heartburn and indigestion

b) Abdominal distension and constipation

c) Nausea, vomiting, and acid reflux

d) Diarrhea, dysentery, fever

Diarrhea, dysentery, fever.

What is a common symptom of Shigellosis?

a) Jaundice and liver failure

b) Severe dehydration without fever

c) Frequent diarrhea with mucous and blood

d) Excessive frothy stool

Frequent diarrhea with mucous and blood.

What is the function of normal flora in the digestive system?

a) To absorb water and electrolytes only

b) To produce toxins detrimental to the host

c) Food breakdown and vitamin synthesis

d) To cause opportunistic infections

Food breakdown and vitamin synthesis.

What is associated with acute enterotoxigenic infections?

a) Appendicitis

b) Pseudomembranous colitis

c) Traveler's diarrhea caused by Enterotoxigenic E. coli

d) Chronic gastritis

Traveler's diarrhea caused by Enterotoxigenic E. coli.

What complication can arise from Typhoid Fever?

a) Renal failure and kidney stones

b) Neurological disorders

c) Respiratory distress syndrome

d) Ulceration and intestinal perforation

Ulceration and intestinal perforation.

What do the initials DPT stand for in the vaccination context?

a) Diphtheria, Polio, Typhoid

b) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus

c) Diabetes and Pre-Tuberculosis

d) Disease Prevention Therapy

Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus.

What is the main mode of transmission for Hepatitis B?

a) Parenteral and sexual transmission

b) Airborne droplets

c) Fecal-oral route

d) Contaminated food and water

Parenteral and sexual transmission.

What characteristic feature identifies viral gastroenteritis?

a) Development of a characteristic skin rash

b) Bloody diarrhea with severe abdominal pain

c) Incubation periods of 1-2 days

d) Prolonged fever lasting weeks

Incubation periods of 1-2 days.

What organism is responsible for causing fungal pneumonia in immune-suppressed individuals?

a) Histoplasma capsulatum

b) Pneumocystis carinii

c) Candida albicans

d) Aspergillus fumigatus

Pneumocystis carinii.

What condition can cause a sudden onset of diarrhea in foodborne illness?

a) Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis

b) Staphylococcal Food Poisoning

c) E. coli O157:H7 infection

d) Salmonellosis

Staphylococcal Food Poisoning.