Peds E1 -Neonatology

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156 Terms

1
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What is considered Early Term?

37 weeks to 38 + 6 days

2
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What is considered Full Term?

39 weeks to 40 + 6 days

3
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What is considered Late Term?

41 weeks to 41 + 6 days

4
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What is a neonate?

infant aged 0-28

5
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How is gestational age determined?

number of weeks from the first day of the last period

6
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What is considered Pre-term?

born before 37 weeks.

7
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What is considered Post-term?

born on or after the first day of week 42

8
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What is a live birth?

expulsion w/ evidence of life

9
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What is Fetal death (stillbirth)?

death prior to expulsion w/ no evidence of life

10
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What is infant death?

death from birth to 1 yr

11
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What range is considered Appropriate for Gestational Age (AGA)?

10th -90th percentile for a given GA

12
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T/F: Birth weight is dependent on gestational age

False

13
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What is considered a low birth weight?

</= 2500 gInfants weighing less than or equal to 2500 grams at birth.

14
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What is considered a very low birth weight?

</= 1500 g

15
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What is considered an extremely low birth weight?

</= 1000 g

16
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What is considered advanced maternal age?

>/= 35 yo

17
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What are the top 5 cause of infant mortality?

birth defects, preterm birth/low birth weight, maternal complications, SIDS, injuries

18
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Which artery carries blood to the placenta?

Uterine arteries

19
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Which has a higher affinity for O2?

Fetal

20
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How does blood circulate in a fetus?

umbilical vein → ductus venosus → IVC → RA → foramen ovale → L side of heart→ aorta → umbilical arteries

21
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Why is pulm HTN normal in a fetus?

Fetal Pulmonary Artery pressures are naturally high and does not drop until after birth

22
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What allows the ductus arteriosus to close after birth?

pulm O2 sat inc → less circulating PGE2 allowing the hole to close

(prostaglandins keep the hole patent)

23
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How do the ductus venous and umbilical vein close?

with the clamping of the umbilical cord

24
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How does the foramen ovale close?

closes at birth as pressure in the LA exceeds the pressure in the right forcing the flap valve closed

25
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What are the components of the umbilical cord?

2 arteries and 1 vein

26
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If there is only one umbilical cord artery, what does this indicate?

congenital abnormalities (usually renal)

27
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What is are the functions of the placenta?

exchange of gases, nutrients, electrolytes

hormone production

transmission of maternal antibodies

28
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What do babies IgG level reach adult levels?

3 yo

29
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What can cross the placenta barrier?

  • maternal steroidal hormones

  • synthetic progestins

  • Thyroxine (slowly)

  • Viruses

  • Drugs (heroine, cocaine, DES, TDaP)

30
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Which viruses can cross the placenta?

TORCH

  • toxoplasmosis

  • other: varicella, syphilis, parvovirus

  • Rubella

  • Cytomegalovirus

  • Herpes Simplex

31
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What is Abruption (abruptio placenta)?

placental lining separates from the uterus of the mother prior to delivery

32
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What is the pathological cause of late pregnancy bleeding?

Abruption

33
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What are common causes of Abruption?

HTN or cocaine abuse

34
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What is Accreta?

all or part of the placenta attaches abnormally to the myometrium

35
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What is Increta?

chorionic villi invade into the myometrium

36
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What is Percreta?

choronic villi invade through the myometrium to uterine serosa or adjacent organs

37
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What can cause minimally painful bleeding after 20wks gestation?

placenta previa

38
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What is Placenta Previa?

placental implantation in the lower uterine segment covering the internal cervical os

39
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Is placenta previa an emergency?

not always

40
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What is necessary in a mother develops Placenta Previa?

will need C-section; CANNOT have vaginal delivery

41
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What is Chorioamnionitis?

inflammation of fetal membranes (placenta & amniotic fluid)

42
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What causes Chorioamnionitis?

ascending vaginal bacteria

43
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When does Chorioamnionitis typically occur?

20-30 weeks

44
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What are the risk factors for Chorioamnionitis?

Amniocentesis, + genital tract pathogens, premature rupture of the membranes

45
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What is a Chorioangioma?

benign tumor of a blood vessel in the placenta

46
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A Chorioangioma increases the risk for?

polyhydramnios, coagulopathies, premature delivery, toxemia, fetal heart failure, hyrops fetalis

47
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Are the majority (90%) of twins monozygotic or dizygotic?

Dizygotic (fraternal)

48
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Which type of twins is the result of simultaneous shedding of two oocytes and fertilization by different sperm?

Dizygotic

49
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What is Erythrocyte Mosaicism?

placentas or chorionic sacs fuse → each twin possess 2 different types of RBCs

50
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Which type of twins develops from a single fertilized ovum that splits?

Monozygotic

51
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If identical twins share an amniotic sac they must’ve split after how many days?

8-12 days post-fertilizations (separate = 4th-8th day)

52
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When can twin-to-twin transfusions happen?

when one placenta is shared between twins

53
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What is the result of twin-to-twin transfusions?

unbalanced blood shared between placenta and fetuses → 1 gets too much blood & 1 too little blood

54
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What can twin-to-twin transfusion cause?

CHF or fetal hydrops

55
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What is the tx for twin-to-twin transfusions?

antenatal therapy

56
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In order to be classified as hydrops fetalis, fluid must be accumulated in how many different organ space?

2

57
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Which type of hydrops fetalis is most common?

non-immune hydrops

58
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What causes immune hydrops (erythroblastosis fetalis)?

Rh incompatibility

59
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What causes non-immune hydrops?

severe anemia, twin-twin transfusion syndrome, heart/lung defects, congenital infections

60
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How do you prevent Hydrops fetalis?

RhoGAM for Rh incompatibility

61
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If the Group B strep culture comes back + what do you need to do? (tested for at 35-37 wks)

tx prophylaxis w/ PCN

62
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Why do we measure fundal height? (22-26 wks)

evaluate for intrauterine growth restriction

63
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When do we start doing US?

16-20 wks gestation to assess anatomy

64
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What are Non-Stress Tests (NST) looking for?

2 fetal heart rate accelerations w/in 20 minutes

*abn = non-reactive → poor fetal outcome

65
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What does Contraction Stress Test look for?

change in FHR in response to uterine contractions (3 over 10 mins) → should see accelerations in FHR

66
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What does a Fetal Biophysical Profile (BPP) check for?

movement, tone, breathing, amniotic fluid volume

67
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What causes symmetric IUGR?

(symmetric = body proportionally small)

intrinsic causes: genetics, TORCH infxns

68
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What causes asymmetric IUGR?

(asymmetric =normal head, small body)

extrinsic cause: chronic hypoxia, undernourishment, HTN

69
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What is Preeclampsia?

multisystem progressive condition characterized by new onset HTN and proteinuria in the last half of pregnancy or postpartum

70
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What is eclampsia?

maternal HTN, proteinuria, & seizures

71
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What is the only curative tx for preeclampsia?

delivery of the baby

72
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What may help preeclampsia in severe cases?

Mag sulfate

73
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What is gestational diabetes?

diabetes that develops DURING pregnancy

74
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What fetal complications can arise from diabetic mothers?

sudden fetal death, macrsomia, hypoglyemia (at birth), hypocalcemia/hypomagnesemia, polycythemia, respiratory distress, etc.

75
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What is the concern w/ macrosomia?

traumatic or operative delivery

76
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What happens if an infants BG drops below 40mg/dL?

lethargy, jitteriness, seizures

77
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What is caudal regression syndrome?

Large top, small bottom

78
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What inc pre-term infant mortality rate?

male, hypothermia, APGAR <4 @ 5min, persistent bradycardia @ 5min, hypothermia, IUGR, low birth weight

79
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What is the APGAR score?

quick assessment of infant’s immediate adaptation to extrauterine life (obtained at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth)

80
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What are the components of APGAR?

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

81
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What APGAR score indicates a smooth transition to extrauterine life?

5+ @ 1 minute; 8-10 @ 5 minutes

82
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What APGAR indicates a severe depression and requires immediate resuscitation?

<4 @ 1 minute

83
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What APGAR score indicates high risk for CNS dysfunction or cardiovascular abnormalities?

< 7 @ 5 minutes

84
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When might an additional APGAR score be needed at 10 minutes?

cyanotic at 1 minute and not clear by 5 minutes

85
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What features score a 2 (each) on APGAR?

pink, >100 bpm, cries and pulls away, active movement, strong cry

86
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What features score a 1 (each) on APGAR?

blue extremities, < 100 bmp, grimaces or weak cry, arms/legs flexed, slow irregular respirations

87
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What features score a 0 (each) on APGAR?

pale or blue, no pulse, no response to stimulation, no movement, no breathing

88
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Which score is used to perform a gestational age assessment at birth?

New Ballard Score

89
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What medication is given to Newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

Vitamin K 1mg IM

90
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What vaccine is given after birth?

Hep B (#1); if mom + → Hep B Ig

91
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What eye prophylaxis is given to Newborns?

silver nitrate solution & Erythromycin

92
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What causes Amniotic bands seen on limbs/digits of some newborns?

tears in the amnion result in strictures that may encircle parts of the fetus

93
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What causes Hyaline Membrane Disease (NRDS)?

surfactant deficiency

94
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How does NRDS present?

w/in hours of delivery w/ tachypnea, grunting, inc work of breathing, cyanosis

95
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What would a CXR of NRDS show?

air bronchograms, ground glass appearance

96
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What is the tx for NRDS?

surfactant replacement w/in 30-60 min

97
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What can prevent NRDS?

antenatal steroids used btwn 24-34 weeks gestational age

98
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What is the MCC of respiratory distress in term infants?

Transient Tachypnea of the Newbron

99
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What causes Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn?

fetal lung fluid is retained → persistent pulm edema

100
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What would a CXR of Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn show?

no air bronchograms, no ground glass; streaky “sunburst” appearance