Vet physio mosby

The major intracellular storage site for calcium in skeletal muscle is:

a. rough endoplasmic reticulum

b. mitochondria

c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d. cytoplasm

e. lysosomes

c In skeletal muscle, calcium is stored in smooth

endoplasmic reticulum

The major site of energy metabolism in a cell is:

a. nucleus

b. mitochondria

c. centrioles

d. microsomes

e. endoplasmic reticulum

b The mitochondria produce energy for cellular

metabolism

The most powerful control of alveolar ventilation in a healthy resting animal is:

a. pH of extracellular fluid

b. Pco2 of extracellular fluid

c. pH of cerebrospinal fluid

d. Pco2 of cerebrospinal fluid

a A low extracellular pH (tending toward

acidemia) stimulates respiration.

Sodium pumps of cells:

a. are unaffected by hormones

b. actively transport only sodium ions

c. transport sodium into the cytoplasm

d. transport potassium into cells

e. have a fixed rate of sodium transport

d Potassium is moved across the cell membrane

into the cell.

Lipid-soluble substrates move across cell membranes through a process known as:

a. facilitated diffusion

b. active transport

c. passive cotransport with water-soluble substrates

d. simple diffusion

e. exchange diffusion

d These substances "dissolve" in the cell

membrane and passively diffuse down a

concentration gradient into the cell.

Facilitated diffusion of substrates across cell membranes:

a. can move substrates against electrochemical gradients

b. represents an "aqueous" route for hydrophilic substances

c. represents a form of active transport

d. is always a form of cotransport

e. cannot be saturated

d Facilitated diffusion requires a carrier protein

to carry substrates into and out of the cell.

Cotransport of organic substrates across mammalian cell membranes:

a. can occur with potassium diffusion

b. can involve only two organic compounds

c. requires sodium diffusion

d. must transport only one substrate at a time

e. cannot produce a concentration gradient for the organic substrate

c The Na+ concentration gradient is established

by the sodium-potassium pump.

Blood:

a. contains cells and plasma

b. is not important for carbon dioxide transport

c. consists of cells and serum

d. has no excretory function

e. consists mostly of cells

a Blood is comprised of cells (white blood cells,

red blood cells, platelets) and plasma.

Blood proteins are:

a. comprised of fewer than 50 individual proteins

b. produced only in the liver

c. produced only by bone marrow stem cells

d. produced only by hepatocytes, leukocytes, and vascular endothelia

e. all of a single type

d Plasma proteins are produced by liver, blood,

and vascular endothelial cells.

The osmolality of plasma relative to extravascular fluid is provided by:

a. carbohydrates

b. albumins

c. lipids

d. apoproteins

e. inorganic ions

b Albumin imparts osmolality to plasma.

Plasma albumin:

a. is produced by hepatocytes and lymphocytes

b. is entirely limited to intravascular distribution

c. cannot serve as a transport protein

d. has a half-life of about 19 days

e. does not contribute to lipid transport

d xAnimals producing insufficient albumin

develop hypoalbuminemia within a few weeks.

Resting membrane potentials of skeletal muscle and nerve cell membranes are produced primarily by:

a. concentration gradients of various ions

b. outward diffusion rate of potassium

c. inward diffusion of sodium

d. diffusion of chloride

e. sodium-potassium pumping

b Potassium diffuses down the concentration

gradient and out of cells.

The equilibrium potential for potassium ions is a membrane potential produced when there is:

a. most rapid diffusion of potassium

b. impermeability to potassium ions

c. no effect of potassium diffusion on the membrane potential

d. potassium diffusion more rapid than that of other ions

e. no net diffusion of potassium

e At equilibrium, the electrical potential created

by potassium diffusion out of the cell and the

difference in potassium concentration inside

and outside the cell are balanced.

Blockage of the sodium-potassium pumps of excitable cells with digitalis derivatives results in:

a. reduced cell size

b. increased resting cell membrane potentials

c. depolarization

d. blockage of all cellular transport

e. decreased excitability of cells

c This is the basis for use of digitalis drugs in

treatment of heart disease.

A decrease in which factor would increase the

turbulence of blood flow?

a. blood vessel diameter

b. velocity of blood flow

c. blood density

d. blood pressure

e. blood viscosity

e Highly viscous blood does not flow smoothly

through vessels.

Increasing excitability of peripheral nerve axons is

associated with:

a. decreased connective tissue sheaths in the nerve

b. decreased diameter of nerve axons

c. lack of myelin in nerve axons

d. increased connective tissue sheaths in the nerve

e. increased diameter of nerve axons

e Wider nerve axons tend to be more excitable

than more narrow axons.

Epinephrine increases the heart rate by:

a. increasing the permeability of nodal cells to calcium ions

b. decreasing the permeability of nodal cells to calcium ions

c. increasing the permeability of nodal cells to potassium ions

d. decreasing the permeability of nodal cells to sodium ions

e. increasing the permeability of nodal cells to sodium ions

a Epinephrine allows more rapid influx of

calcium into nodal cells, enhancing

depolarization.

A somatic motor unit is defined as:

a. all neurons and muscle fibers in a muscle fascicle

b. a motor nucleus and the muscle fibers innervated

c. a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers innervated

d. a single sensory neuron and all motor neurons excited

e. the least activity in a muscle that will cause movement

c This answer correctly defines a somatic motor

unit.

Renin is:

a. a pituitary hormone

b. a milk coagulation protein

c. secreted as an active enzyme

d. produced by the adrenal gland

e. a vasoconstrictor

c Renin from the kidneys increases production

of angiotensin II.

Thyroid hormones alter the effect of epinephrine by:

a. increasing the number of a-receptors per cell

b. decreasing the density of enzymes destroying epinephrine

c. increasing the activity of enzymes destroying epinephrine

d. increasing the number of β-receptors per cell

e. decreasing the number of a-and β- receptors per cell

d Increased β-receptors make cells more

sensitive to epinephrine.

Which cells do not require insulin for glucose uptake?

a. skeletal muscle cells

b. fibroblasts

c. fat cells

d. liver cells

e. neurons

e Glucose can pass into neurons without the aid

of insulin.

According to Poiseuille's principle, the major determinant of volume of blood flow per unit of time is the:

a. cross-sectional radius of the vascular tree

b. pressure gradient across the vascular tree

c. viscosity of blood

d. density of blood

e. length of the vascular tree

a A small increase in a vessel's radius greatly

reduces resistance to blood flow.

Afterload to left ventricular contraction is defined as the intraventricular pressure:

a. at the end of systole

b. required to open the aortic valve

c. at the end of diastole

d. required to close the left atrioventricular valve

e. required to open the left atrioventricular valve

b Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed that

in the aorta to open the aortic valve.

The major determinant of blood viscosity is the:

a. specific gravity of plasma

b. plasma protein concentration

c. lipoprotein concentration

d. hematocrit

e. number of white blood cells

d Blood with reduced numbers of red blood cells

(low hematocrit) is less viscous than blood with

many red blood cells (high hematocrit).

Reactive hyperemia is due to:

a. decreased adrenergic a-activity

b. increased adrenergic β-activity

c. increased circulating levels of epinephrine

d. increased circulating levels of acetylcholine

e. increased levels of anaerobic metabolites

e This response attempts to remove

accumulations of anaerobic metabolites.

Concerning normal heart sounds, which

statement is most accurate?

a. The first sound corresponds to opening of the atrioventricular valves.

b. The second sound corresponds to closure of the atrioventricular valves.

c. The third sound is produced by rapid diastolic ventricular filling.

d. The fourth sound is produced by turbulence of blood flow.

e. They can be heard only with amplification.

c A third heart sound is considered pathologic in

dogs and cats.

The major beneficial function of surfactant in the lung is to:

a. slow gas diffusion

b. maintain integrity of the alveoli

c. increase surface tension

d. trap foreign materials

e. provide a medium for movement of macrophages

b Surfactant decreases surface tension in the

alveoli.

Circulating blood volume is regulated primarily by control of:

a. total body water volume

b. intracellular water volume

c. systemic arterial blood pressure

d. central venous pressure

e. plasma protein concentration

e Blood osmolality, and hence intravascular

volume, is largely controlled by plasma protein

concentration.

The feature that is essential for venous return from dependent body parts is:

a. muscle pumps

b. foot or hoof pumps

c. respiratory pumps

d. venous valves

e. postcapillary blood pressure

d Venous valves prevent back flow of blood in

dependent parts.

30. The major effect of myelin is to:

a. provide a nutrient source for axons

b. facilitate transmission of action potentials between axons

c. limit the frequency of action potentials

d. enhance the velocity of action potentials

e. provide physical support of axons

d Myelin insulates axons and facilitates flow of

impulses.

To increase calcium absorption from the small intestine, parathyroid hormone directly activates or enhances:

a. calcium-binding protein synthesis in enterocytes

b. the effect of vitamin D on enterocytes

c. liver conversion of previtamin D

d. enzymes of the skin to produce previtamin D

e. kidney conversion to active vitamin D

e Decreased blood calcium levels stimulate

secretion of parathyroid hormone, which

increases conversion of the active form of

vitamin D and increases absorption of calcium

from the gut.

The myotatic reflex:

a. is activated by muscle contraction

b. is enhanced by diminished y־motor activity

c. results in contraction of heteronomous muscles

d. results in contraction of homonomous muscles

e. causes relaxation of synergists to homonomous muscles

d Muscle stretching initiates this reflex.

The second messenger associated with the action of antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) is:

a. cAMP

b. inositol triphosphate

c. calcium

d. cGMP

e. diacylglyceride

a Binding of vasopressin with a receptor on the

renal tubular cell membrane activates cAMP.

Intestinal iron absorption:

a. is complete, and excess iron is excreted in urine

b. is complete until plasma transport is saturated

c. occurs throughout the small intestine

d. results in storage in absorptive cells

e. is usually excessive when dietary levels are high

d After absorption, iron is stored in intestinal cells.

Plasma bilirubin is:

a. made soluble by albumin

b. excreted unconjugated

c. converted to biliverdin

d. water soluble

e. conjugated with amino acids

a Conjugation with albumin makes bilirubin

soluble in the plasma.

As compared with the saliva of dogs, the saliva of ruminants:

a. contains less sodium

b. contains more bicarbonate

c. contains much less chloride

d. is much more acidic

e. is less voluminous

b The saliva of ruminants is very alkaline and

contains high levels of bicarbonate and

phosphate.

Hydrogen ions are secreted from the parietal cells of the stomach by:

a. passive diffusion

b. a hydrogen-potassium exchange pump

c. a hydro gen-chloride symport

d. an integral part of the sodium pump

e. activation of adrenergic receptors

b One potassium ion is pumped into the cell for

each hydrogen ion pumped out.

Which of the following is not an exocrine pancreatic secretion?

a. pepsin

b. trypsin

c. chymotrypsin

d. elastase

e. carboxypeptidase

a Pepsin is secreted by the gastric glandular cells.

Enterohepatic circulation:

a. involves an unusual pattern of arterial and venous blood flow

b. maintains the pool of bile salts

c. maintains high levels of bile pigments in plasma

d. conserves vitamin B12

e. involves only primary bile salts

. b Bile salts are extracted from portal blood by

the liver and excreted again via the bile duct.

Cessation of absorption in the intestines of calves:

a. occurs at the same time for all immunoglobulins

b. involves only immunoglobulins

c. occurs earlier for IgG than for IgM

d. involves drugs as well as immunoglobulins

e. is necessary for passive immunity in all species

d Large molecules, such as immunoglobulins

and drugs, are absorbed by pinocytosis via

specialized enterocytes, especially during the

first 6 to 12 hours of life. After about 24 hours of

life, these cells are shed and large molecules can

no longer be absorbed.

As compared with colostrum produced on the second day of lactation, colostrum produced on the first day of lactation contains:

a. more lactose

b. less lipid

c. less protein

d. less sodium

e. more protein

e Colostrum produced on the first day of

lactation has a high content of immunoglobulins.

Uteroverdin, a green pigment associated with the fetal membranes of dogs, is:

a. secreted by the uterine wall

b. derived from hemoglobin

c. a degenerative product of the placenta

d. derived from the placental villi

e. an indication of fetal resorption

b Uteroverdin is a derivative of hemoglobin.

Chylomicrons are formed in:

a. intestinal absorptive cells

b. liver cells

c. plasma

d. lymph

e. adipocytes

a Chylomicrons pass from the enterocyte into

the lymphatics.

In cells, vitamin E:

a. stimulates growth

b. enhances protein synthesis

c. enhances cellular oxidation

d. limits oxygen utilization

e. acts as an antioxidant

e Vitamin E has antioxidant properties.

In ruminants, eructation results in passage of rumen gases:

a. out through the nose

b. out through the mouth

c. out through the nose and mouth

d. into the lung

e. into the omasum

d A large portion of eructated gases is inspired

and absorbed through the lungs.

The basic motor activity cycle of the ruminoreticulum begins with:

a. biphasic contraction of the rumen

b. biphasic contraction of the rumen and reticulum

c. rapid biphasic reticular contraction

d. biphasic contraction of the dorsal sac of the rumen

e. a single contraction of the ventral sac of the rumen

c Contractions begin in the reticulum and

spread to the rumen.

The major source of water in the ruminoreticulum of normal cattle is from:

a. ingested water

b. extracellular fluid entering osmotically

c. fermentation

d. saliva

e. backflow from the omasum/abomasum

d Cattle secrete and swallow large volumes of

saliva.

Elastic recoil of lung tissue is primarily attributable to:

a. connective tissues

b. pneumocytes

c. bronchiolar walls

d. surface tension

e. bloodvessels

d Elastic tissue also contributes to lung recoil.

Mucociliary clearance in the respiratory tract refers to:

a. macrophage action

b. secretion of mucus

c. secretion of serous fluid

d. ciliated airway cell shedding

e. removal of foreign material

e Foreign material is moved out of the airway in

a blanket of mucus through the action of cilated

airway cells.

In domestic animals, the tidal volume per kilogram of body weight is approximately:

a.

2

to

4 ml

b.

4

to

6 ml

c.

6

to

8 ml

d.

8

to

10ml

e.

10 to 12 ml

d Tidal volume is the volume of air inhaled with

each breath.

Pressure within the pleural cavity is negative:

a. only during inspiration

b. during coughing

c. at all times during eupnea

d. during vomiting

e. only during expiration

c A vacuum must be maintained at all times in the

pleural space so the lungs can inflate and deflate.

The major part of airway resistance is attributable to the:

a. nasal passages

b. larynx

c. trachea

d. bronchi

e. bronchioles

b Resistance to air flow is lower in other parts of

the airway.

In the respiratory tract, physiologic dead space is:

a. equal to alveolar dead space

b. equal to anatomic dead space

c. less than anatomic dead space

d. less than alveolar dead space

e. equal to anatomic dead space plus alveolar dead space

e Gases are not exchanged in dead space,

including the airways and unexpanded alveoli.

The effect of increasing carbon dioxide content of the blood on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is known as the:

a. Haldane effect

b. Bohr effect

c. Venturi effect

d. Gibbs effect

e. Bernoulli effect

b As carbon dioxide levels rise (pH falls), oxygen

is more easily unloaded from hemoglobin to

tissues.

As compared with the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, the affinity of hemoglobin for carbon monoxide is approximately:

a. 50 times greater

b. 100 times greater

c. 150 times greater

d. 200 times greater

e. 250 times greater

e Hemoglobin has a much higher affinity for

carbon monoxide than for oxygen.

Haptoglobin is a plasma protein that acts as a carrier for:

a. hemoglobin

b. fatty acids

c. steroids

d. bilirubin

e. iron

a Haptoglobin comprises plasma albumins that

bind with hemoglobin.

The integrity of the gastric mucosal barrier to hydrochloric acid is heavily dependent on:

a. bicarbonate in saliva

b. leukotrienes

c. prostaglandins

d. mucus

e. cell membranes

c Antiprostaglandins, such as aspirin, can lead

to gastric ulceration.

Production of red blood cells depends on the hormone, produced in the kidney; called:

a. erythropoietin

b. interleukin3־

c. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor

d. interleukin-1

e. prostaglandin P2a

a Animals with reduced functional renal tissue

may become anemic because of reduced

production of erythropoietin.

The average life span of an erythrocyte in mammalian blood is:

a. 80 days

b. 90 days

c. 100 days

d. 110 days

e. 120 days

e Red blood cells remain viable for about 4

months.

The half-life of circulating granulocytes is approximately:

a. 3 days

b. 2 days

c. 1 day

d. 12 hours

e. 6 hours

e Granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, and

eosinophils) remain in the circulation for only a

matter of hours.

Tissue macrophages are derived from:

a. neutrophils

b. fibroblasts

c. monocytes

c Monocytes accumulate at sites of

inflammation and transform into macrophages.

62. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin):

a. is a potent vasopressor

b. is a neurosecretion

c. increases urine production

d. antagonizes aldosterone

e. is a glycoprotein

b Vasopressin is secreted from the

neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).

The proportion of body weight represented by total body water content in an average adult animal is approximately:

a. 40%

b. 50%

c. 60%

d. 70%

e. 80%

c Of this percentage, approximately 22% is

extracellular and 35% intracellular.

Winch substance, released by sweat glands, produces vasodilation?

a. dopamine

b. prostaglandin

c. leukotriene

d. bradykinin

e. serotonin

d Vasodilation facilitates heat loss.

Concerning calcium balance in the body; which statement is most accurate?

a. Calcitonin increases the calcium level in extracellular fluid.

b. Vitamin D mobilizes calcium from bone.

c. Parathormone increases the calcium level in extracellular fluid.

d. Parathormone increases deposition of calcium in bone.

e. Calcitonin enhances intestinal absorption of calcium.

c Parathormone promotes movement of

calcium from bone to increase calcium levels in

the extracellular fluid.

Which of the following most accurately describes the effects of aldosterone in the kidney?

a. enhances resorption of potassium

b. enhances resorption of calcium

c. enhances secretion of magnesium

d. enhances resorption of sodium

e. enhances secretion of calcium

d Aldosterone enhances resorption of sodium

and secretion of potassium to enhance water

resorption.

Glomerular filtration rate is best estimated clinically by:

a. the volume of urine produced per minute

b. free water clearance

c. osmolar clearance

d. creatinine clearance

e. urea clearance

d Creatinine clearance in urine is the best

clinical indicator of glomerular filtration rate.

Protein in the glomerular filtrate is normally completely resorbed in the:

a. collecting tubules

b. distal convoluted tubules

c. ascending limb of the loop of Henle

d. descending limb of the loop of Henle

e. proximal convoluted tubule

e In normal animals, nearly all protein is

resorbed from the proximal convoluted tubule.

Protein is resorbed from the glomerular filtrate through a mechanism called:

a. reverse osmosis

b. pinocytosis

c. passive diffusion

d. facilitated diffusion

e. sodium leaching

b Cells in the renal tubules resorb protein

through pinocytosis.

Production of acidic urine in a state of metabolic alkalosis is referred to as:

a. paradoxic aciduria

b. renal tubular alkalosis

c. renal compensation

d. renal tubular acidosis

e. Fanconi syndrome

a It is paradoxic because one would expect the

urine to be alkaline in a state of alkalosis.

The most common mechanism for acidification of urine is:

a. resorption of sodium bicarbonate

b. excretion of titratable acids

c. excretion of ammonium

d. excretion of urea

e. exchange of hydrogen ions for potassium ions

a Resorption of sodium bicarbonate causes the

urine to be acidic.

The major source of blood urea is the:

a. large intestine

b. liver

c. spleen

d. muscle

e. diet

b Urea is produced in hepatocytes by hydrolysis

of arginine to urea and ornithine.

Chronic vomiting results in hypochloremia and:

a. hyperkalemia

b. hypernatremia

c. hyponatremia

d. hypokalemia

e. hyperphosphatemia

d Large amounts of potassium are also lost in

the vomitus

In herbivores, which of the following is not a function of the colon?

a. absorption of electrolytes

b. absorption of water

c. mixing and digestion of ingesta

d. storage of feces

e. fermentation of organic matter

c Ingesta is mixed and digested in the small

intestine.

In horses, the intestinal structure in which most water is absorbed from ingesta is the:

a. left ventral colon

b. left dorsal colon

c. descending colon

d. right dorsal colon

e. cecum

e In horses, most of the water in ingesta is

absorbed from the cecum.

The second heart sound is produced by closure of which heart valves?

a. aortic and mitral

b. mitral and pulmonary

c. mitral and tricuspid

d. pulmonary and aortic

e. pulmonary and tricuspid

d The second heart sound is produced by

closure of the two ventricular outflow valves

(pulmonary and aortic).

The first heart sound is produced by closure of which heart valves?

a. aortic and mitral

b. mitral and pulmonary

c. mitral and tricuspid

d. pulmonary and aortic

e. pulmonary and tricuspid

c The first heart sound is produced by closure of

the two atrioventricular valves (mitral and

tricuspid).

Which vessel normally carries blood with a high level of carbon dioxide?

a. aorta

b. carotid artery

c. pulmonary vein

d. umbilical vein

e. vena cava

e All of the other vessels normally carry oxygen-

rich blood

The most numerous blood cell is the:

a. basophil

b. eosinophil

c. erythrocyte

d. lymphocyte

e. monocyte

c All of the other cells listed are white blood cells

that are much less numerous.

A muscle that increases the angle between two bones is known as:

a. an abductor

b. an adductor

c. a circumductor

d. an extensor

e. a flexor

d An extensor muscle increases the angle

between two bones at a joint.

Most of the filtering, humidifying, and warming of inspired air occurs in the:

a. larynx

b. nares

c. nasal passages

d. pharynx

e. trachea

c The large surface area, extensive venous

plexus, and active cilia of the nasal passages

significantly condition inspired air.

Winch of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

a. acid-base regulation

b. olfaction

c. phonation

d. prehension

e. temperature regulation

d Prehension is the act of grasping.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transferred between inspired air and blood in the lung by the process of:

a. flow down the pressure gradient

b. diffusion

c. ion pumping

d. nitrogenation

e. osmosis

b The gases diffuse from an area of high

concentration to an area of low concentration

through the thin alveolar and capillary walls.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system causes:

a. dilation of airways in the lung

b. dilation of the pupil of the eye

c. increased gastrointestinal function

d. increased blood pressure

e. increased heart rate

c The parasympathetic nervous system is the

"business-as-usual system״ that helps to support

basic body functions, such as digestion.

Stimulation of the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system causes all of the following except:

a. dilation of airways in the lung

b. dilation of the pupil of the eye

c. increased gastrointestinal function

d. increased heart rate

e. piloerection

c The sympathetic nervous system is the "fight-

or-flight״ system that prepares the body for

intense short-term activity.

Which part of the CNS initiates conscious movements of the body?

a. brachial plexus

b. brainstem

c. cerebellum

d. cerebrum

e. spinal cord

d The cerebrum is the only portion of the

nervous system that can initiate conscious body

movements. The others serve to transmit and/ or

modify nerve impulses that produce movements.

Damage to which part of the CNS is most likely to produce instant death in an animal?

a. brachial plexus

b. brainstem

c. cerebellum

d. cerebrum

e. spinal cord

b The brainstem contains control centers for

many basic body functions, such as respiration

and cardiovascular function. Damage to those

control centers results in rapid death.

Which hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland?

a. antidiuretic hormone

b. calcitonin

c. luteinizing hormone

d. oxytocin

e. progesterone

c All of the other hormones listed are produced

in other endocrine glands.

Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?

a. adrenocorticotropic hormone

b. calcitonin

c. luteinizing hormone

d. oxytocin

e. prolactin

d Oxytocin is produced in the hypothalamus and

transmitted along specialized nerve fibers to the

posterior pituitary gland for storage and release.

Which endocrine gland releases the hormone that causes milk letdown from the mammary gland?

a. adrenal cortex

b. anterior pituitary gland

c. ovary

d. posterior pituitary gland

e. thyroid gland

d Oxytocin, the hormone that produces milk

letdown, is produced in the hypothalamus and

transported to the posterior pituitary gland along

nerve fibers for storage and release.

The kinesthetic (movement, position) sense reacts to which general type of stimuli?

a. chemical

b. electromagnetic

c. mechanical

d. thermal

e. vestibular

c The kinesthetic (movement, position) sense

receives information from mechanical receptors

in muscles and joints.

The visual (sight) sense reacts to which general type of stimuli?

a. chemical

b. electromagnetic

c. mechanical

d. thermal

e. vestibular

b The visual sense (sight) converts light waves

(electromagnetic radiation) into nerve impulses.

The gustatory (taste) sense reacts to which general type of stimuli?

a. chemical

b. electromagnetic

c. mechanical

d. thermal

e. vestibular

a The gustatory sense (taste) reacts to chemical

substances in the mouth.

The auditory (hearing) sense reacts to which general type of stimuli?

a. chemical

b. electromagnetic

c. mechanical

d. thermal

e. vestibular

c The auditory sense (hearing) converts

mechanical vibrations of air molecules (sound

waves) into nerve impulses.

Rotary motion of the head is detected by which sensory structure?

a. cochlea

b. malleus

c. organ of Corti

d. semicircular canal

e. vestibule

d The semicircular canals in each inner ear are

arranged in different planes, so one or more is

stimulated by rotary motion of the head in any

direction.

Accommodation for near and far vision is accomplished by contraction or relaxation of muscles in the:

a. ciliary body

b. conjunctiva

c. iris

d. limbus

e. retina

a Muscles of the ciliary body cause stretching

and relaxation of the lens of the eye.

The kidney helps to control water balance in the body under the influence of:

a. adrenocorticotropic hormone

b. antidiuretic hormone

c. calcitonin

d. oxytocin

e. parathormone

b Antidiuretic hormone is secreted when the

body becomes dehydrated. It increas

Spermatogenesis takes place in the:

a. epididymis

b. prostate gland

c. seminal vesicles

d. seminiferous tubules

e. vas deferens

d The seminiferous tubules are long U-shaped

tubes in the testes where spermatozoa are

produced before moving into the epididymis for

storage. The other structures listed are part of

the system that transports spermatozoa during

ejaculation and produces the components of

semen.

What is the correct sequence of development of ovarian structures in a normal cycle?

a. corpus albicans, corpus luteum, corpus hemorrhagicum

b. corpus hemorrhagicum, graafian follicle, corpus luteum

c. corpus luteum, graafian follicle, corpus hemorrhagicum

d. graafian follicle, corpus hemorrhagicum, corpus luteum

e. graafian follicle, corpus luteum, corpus hemorrhagicum

d Rupture of a graafian follicle (ovulation)

results in formation of a corpus

hemorrhagicum, which soon evolves into a

corpus luteum.

100. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates c. growth hormone

spermatogenesis in males'? d. luteinizing hormone

. a. estrogen e. prolactin

b. follicle-stimulating hormone

b Though it is named for its effect in the

female, follicle-stimulating hormone promotes

spermatogenesis in the male.