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1.1: A technician plans an upgrade for several company laptops with new internal storage devices. The requirement is that the new devices interface with a PCI Express bus. What type of device does the technician use?
A.uSATA
B.mSATA
C.SATA
D.M.2
M.2
An M.2 SSD usually interfaces with the PCI Express bus, allowing much higher bus speeds than SATA. M.2 adapters can be of different lengths (42 mm, 60 mm, 80 mm, or 110 mm).
Some drives fit into a drive bay with no cables. 1.8" drive bays might require the use of the micro SATA or uSATA connector.
An SSD might be housed on a card with a Mini-SATA (mSATA) interface. These cards resemble Mini PCIe cards but are not physically compatible with Mini PCIe slots.
Traditional magnetic drives and SSD flash storage devices can use the SATA interface and connector form factors.
3.3: Non-volatile storage devices hold data when the system is powered off. These devices are also referred to as mass storage. What are the three types of technologies that mass storage devices use? (Select all that apply.)
A.Magnetic
B.Optical
C.RAM
D.Solid-state
Magnetic
Optical
Solid-state
Magnetic drives, commonly called hard disk drives (HDDs), store data on metal or glass platters that are coated with a magnetic substance.
Optical drives, such as Compact Discs (CDs), DVDs, and Blu-Ray drives, use a laser to read data that has been encoded on the surface of the disc.
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage.
System memory is implemented as random-access memory (RAM) devices. RAM is faster than the flash memory used for SSDs and much faster than an HDD, but it is volatile. RAM is not a mass storage technology.
2.4: An engineer is evaluating a new unified threat management (UTM) appliance as a potential replacement for an outdated firewall. Which feature related to website browsing is the engineer most likely to find in the UTM?
A.Content filtering
B.Data loss prevention
C.Workflow automation
D.Load balancing
Content filtering
UTM appliances commonly include content filtering capabilities, allowing administrators to block or allow access to specific websites, categories, or services based on security policies. This helps in preventing users from accessing potentially malicious or inappropriate content.
While DLP systems scan outgoing traffic for sensitive or flagged information, ensuring unauthorized data transfers don't occur, it's typically not a primary website browsing feature in UTMs.
Workflow automation is more related to processes in industrial control systems or business applications, ensuring tasks are coordinated and executed automatically. It's not a typical website browsing feature found in UTMs.
While load balancing plays a critical role in network and application performance, they are not specifically a website browsing feature in the context of a UTM.
5.7: A technician troubleshoots wired connectivity issues with a device. What should the technician check first to resolve a no connectivity issue?
A.Ethernet cable
B.Network interface card (NIC)
C.Wall port
D.Wi-Fi adapter
Ethernet cable
When troubleshooting connectivity on a wired network, the first thing the technician should check is the Ethernet cable. Ensure that the RJ45 connectors are solidly connected to the cable, there are no obvious wear bends or breaks, and that it is properly connected to the device and the wall jack.
The NIC or driver software may be malfunctioning, however, this is not common, nor should it be the first step in troubleshooting connectivity issues.
The wall port is the port that connects the device to the local switch. It is uncommon for the wall port to have a physical issue that would cause no or intermittent connectivity.
The Wi-Fi adapter is an adapter used to connect to wireless networks.
1.2: A user traveling on business reports that a company owned device suffered damage to the screen during a trip. A technician notices cracks on the screen and determines that touch input is no longer recognized. Visual elements on the screen look fine. What components need replacing? (Select all that apply.)
A.Digitizer
B.Protective glass
C.Display panel
D.Gyroscope
Digitizer
B.Protective glass
A touch sensitive component in a mobile device is referred to as a digitizer because of the way it converts analog touch input to digital software instructions. In this case, the digitizer is damaged.
The touch sensitive component itself is covered by a thin layer of scratch-resistant, shock-resistant tempered glass. In this case, the glass is cracked.
The display panel sits below the digitizer. As the visuals on the screen look fine, the display does not need to be replaced.
A gyroscope can detect when a device changes position and adjust the screen orientation appropriately. The gyroscope does not need replacing.
3.2: If there is not enough system Random Access Memory (RAM), the memory space can be extended by using disk storage as a page file or swap space. What is this combination of addressable memory called?
A.ECC RAM
B.Virtual RAM
C.Address space
D.Dual-channel memory controller
Virtual RAM
The total amount of addressable memory (system RAM plus swap space) is referred to as virtual memory or virtual RAM. With virtual memory, the OS assigns memory locations to processes in 4-kilobyte chunks called pages.
Error correcting code (ECC) RAM is used for workstations and servers that require a high level of reliability.
Address space is the amount of memory locations the CPU can keep track of. A 32-bit CPU can access a 4GB address space, whereas a 64-bit CPU commonly uses a 48-bit address bus, allowing up to 256 Tb of memory.
With a dual-channel memory controller, there are two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU.
1.1: A laptop technician in a large corporation needs to upgrade the hard drives on employee laptops. Currently, the laptops have standard 5400 rpm 500 Gb magnetic drives. The technician needs to know what physical drive size to order. What is the normal size for a laptop magnetic drive?
A.3.5 in.
B.2.5 in.
C.1.8 in.
D.80 mm
2.5 in.
A 2.5-inch drive is the standard size for a laptop magnetic HDD. On laptops, it is also important to consider the depth of the drive, since those vary by manufacturer and model.
A 3.5-inch drive is the standard size for a desktop magnetic HDD. This drive configuration is too large for most laptops to utilize internally. Laptop drives are commonly 2.5 inches.
A 1.8-inch drive is commonly an mSATA SSD drive, not an HDD.
The M.2 SSD adaptors interface directly with the PCI express bus. The most popular length is 80 mm.
2.4: A support firm installs and configures network access control systems for organizations. This includes implementing the security mechanisms for local and remote computers to authenticate with an internal server system. An unmanaged switch is put in place on the edge of the network to protect the server and protect against unauthorized traffic. What role does the switch play in the implementation?
Network Access Point
A network access point (NAP) is an access appliance, such as a switch, access point, firewall, or VPN gateway. It is the device that a system makes a connection to in order to access a network.
A supplicant device is a device requesting access to a network. This includes a user's PC or laptop, or even a smart device.
An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is an authentication server that is located in the internal network. A supplicant device authenticates against an AAA server.
An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is often implemented using a protocol called Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS).
5.1: After identifying the problem with a user's computer and collecting detailed information from the user about the problem, a technician believes they know the cause. However, when testing this theory, the technician discovers they were wrong and may not be capable of resolving the issue. What are some appropriate troubleshooting steps for the technician to try next? (Select all that apply.)
A.Back up the computer.
B.Escalate.
C.Develop a new theory.
D.Ask colleagues if any changes have been made to the network infrastructure.
Escalate.
C.Develop a new theory.
If the technician believes the problem is now beyond their ability to solve, they should escalate it through the proper channel.
After discovering the initial probable cause theory was wrong, the technician should develop a new theory based on what is known about the problem combined with what is now known not to work. If the technician believes their initial theory was the only solution within their skill set, they should escalate the problem.
Backing up the computer should have occurred before the technician tested their probable cause theory.
Asking colleagues about changes to network infrastructure should have occurred while gathering information. This is before developing an initial probable cause theory.
2.5: A company plans on live streaming a company-wide meeting once a month. Engineers prepare network equipment to allow the traffic. Which protocol is normally used for such a task?
A.TCP
B.IP
C.DHCP
D.UDP
UDP
The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides unreliable, connectionless forwarding. UDP has less transmission overhead than TCP and is the protocol used with audio and video streams.
The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) guarantees connection-oriented forwarding of packets. TCP can identify and recover from lost or out-of-order packets which are not ideal for audio and video communications.
The Internet Protocol (IP) provides packet addressing and routing within a network of networks. A PC, laptop, mobile device, or server that can communicate on an IP network uses addressing and routing.
As an alternative to static configuration, a host can receive its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses from a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server.
5.4: Which of the following solutions can mitigate debris reaching components and address occasional overheating in a system that's positioned safely away from other objects by facilitating airflow to cool down the internal components? (Select all that apply.)
Install a new system fan
D.Use blanking plates
Installing a new system fan will help increase the system's airflow and cooling. A new fan will be free of debris and contain healthy components to run at optimal speeds.
Using blanking plates is also an effective solution. Always use blanking plates to cover up holes in the back or front of the PC. Holes can disrupt the airflow and decrease the effectiveness of the cooling systems.
Adding more RAM will not directly address the issue of overheating caused by insufficient airflow. RAM does not contribute to the cooling of the system's internal components.
Checking the motherboard is not a common technique for addressing an occasional system overheating issue.
5.7: A small call center office asks their IT service provider to implement a voice-over-IP (VoIP) system for them. After discussing the office's needs, the technician learns that their ability to make and receive phone calls is critical. Considering this information, which of the following should the technician recommend?
A.Configure QoS on the router.
B.Implement DFS.
C.Enable UPnP.
D.Set up port flapping.
Configure QoS on the router.
The technician should suggest configuring quality of service (QoS) on the router to prioritize the port used by VoIP over any other type of protocol.
Dynamic frequency selection (DFS) is used to prevent Wi-Fi signals from interfering with radar and satellites. It is not related to VoIP.
Universal Plug-and-Play (UPnP) is a firewall setting that automatically opens the IP addresses and ports necessary for VoIP calls, but it has many security issues.
Port flapping is when a port transitions continually between up and down states, often caused by bad cabling, external interference, or a faulty network interface card (NIC) at the host end. It is not something that is set up and is not related to VoIP.
2.2: How many binary digits are found within a media access control (MAC) address?
A.32
B.12
C.48
D.16
48
A MAC address consists of 48 binary digits, making it 6 bytes in size. MAC addresses are represented in hexadecimal and each hex digit represents half a byte.
An IP address is 32 binary digits. This address type is made up of four octets, each with 8 binary digits.
A MAC address is typically represented as 12 digits of hexadecimal. Hex is a numbering system often used to represent network addresses of different types.
The number 16 is representative in many areas of computing that usually relate to bits. There are not 16 MAC binary digits.
5.1: A support technician helps a user identify a problem with a newly installed application. The user states the application was working the day before. What does the technician do next?
A.Test a theory to determine a cause.
B.Establish a plan of action.
C.Document the findings.
D.Establish a theory of probable cause.
Establish a theory of probable cause.
Establishing a theory of probable cause can include questioning the obvious. This might include questioning if there have been any system changes since the last use. If necessary, conducting research may be required.
Testing a theory to determine the cause is done once a theory has been established. Comparing to a similar system that works without issue is an example.
Establishing a plan of action to resolve a problem and implement a solution happens after. Removing any updates is an example.
Documenting the findings happens during the final stage of troubleshooting.
5.1: A technician follows a best practice methodology while troubleshooting a problematic computer system. Which of the following options is a consequence of having a problematic computer when considering that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences?
A.The printer is not working properly.
B.The internet connection is slow.
C.The computer is running low on memory.
D.Data required for a meeting is missing.
Data required for a meeting is missing.
It is important to realize that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences. A consequence is the result of the problem. Not being able to provide data is a consequence of having a problematic system.
This is an issue related to the printer, which may be caused by a range of factors, such as connection issues, driver problems, or hardware malfunctions.
This is an issue related to the network connection, which may be caused by bandwidth limitations, signal interference, or other factors affecting the quality of the connection.
This is an issue related to the amount of available memory on the computer, which may be caused by running too many applications or processes simultaneously, or by having too many large files open at once.
3.3: An engineer configures 6 disks in a workstation to be part of a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) volume where one-sixth of the space on each disk will be used for parity. Which RAID type does the engineer implement?
A.5
B.0
C.1
D.10
5
RAID 5 requires a minimum of three drives but can be configured with more. When configuring RAID 5, an equal portion of each disk is used for parity.
RAID 0 requires a minimum of two drives but can be configured with more. As this type of RAID provides no redundancy, there is no parity information available.
RAID 1 is a mirrored drive configuration that uses two disks. A read operation may use either disk, however, a write operation is performed on both disks.
RAID 10 is a nested RAID configuration that combines the features of two basic RAID implementations. It pairs a logical striped volume (RAID 0) configured with two mirrored arrays (RAID 1).
5.5: What issue does the help desk technician suspect is causing a problem of a cursor moving on its own?
A.Digitizer
B.Swelling
C.High Sensitivity
D.Overheating
High Sensitivity
On a laptop, if touchpad sensitivity is too high, typing can cause vibrations that move the cursor. Examples include the pointer drifting across the screen without any input or a "ghost cursor" jumping about when typing. Calibrating the touchpad is a recommended solution.
Symptoms such as a touch screen not responding to input could indicate a problem with the digitizer.
A swollen battery indicates some sort of problem with the battery's charging circuit, which is supposed to prevent overcharging. If a device is exposed to liquid, this could also have damaged the battery.
The compact design of mobile devices makes them vulnerable to overheating. The bottom surface of a laptop becomes hot when improperly ventilated.
5.1: A technician needs to troubleshoot problems. When problem-solving, what are the three items that define a problem? (Select all that apply.)
Cause
B.Fault
C.Symptom
D.Consequence
Symptom
D.Consequence
Cause
Troubleshooting is problem-solving. It is important to realize that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences. Knowing what issue the user or system is having helps define the symptoms of the problem. Identifying the symptom(s) allows one to properly assess a problem.
Once the symptoms are defined, narrow down the cause. Identifying the cause of the problem is an important problem-solving step. This could be a faulty network interface card.
Often, the consequence of the problem is that affected user(s) are unable to complete their work. Understanding the consequences of problems, allows the technician to prioritize problems.
Though a fault can be a cause of a problem, it is not part of the problem-solving process.
5.2: A technician troubleshoots a motherboard issue. What the tech discovers is chip creep with a serial ATA (SATA) connector. What is the cause? (Select all that apply.)
Changing temperature
B.Dust and dirt
C.Electrostatic discharge
D.Capacitor swelling
Changing temperature
B.Dust and dirt
Chip creep is where an adapter works loose from its socket over time. This may happen perhaps because of temperature changes causing the plastic to flex over time.
Dust and dirt can cause chip creep in a SATA connector by acting as an abrasive between the connector and socket, causing wear and damage to the pins over time.
The motherboard's soldered chips and components could be damaged by electrostatic discharge (ESD), electrical spikes, or overheating.
If a component has "blown," it can leave scorch marks. This may be caused by capacitor swelling. The capacitors are barrel-like components that regulate the flow of electricity to the system chips.
5.6: A printer technician receives a complaint from multiple users sharing a laser printer that the pages they are printing are faded or faint. Upon troubleshooting, the technician ruled out user and server settings. What laser printer component needs replacing to fix this error?
A.Fuser
B.Print head
C.Drum
D.Toner cartridge
Toner cartridge
If user settings can be ruled out, it is common that the toner cartridge has simply run out of toner and needs to be replaced.
The fuser on a laser printer would have to be replaced if printed material on a paper smudges easily.
Both inkjet and dot matrix printers use a print head in the printing process. Laser printers do not rely on a print head.
The print drum on a laser printer may need to be replaced if images reappear on a sheet of paper as it is printed.
3.1: An engineer plans a fiber cable implementation between two campus buildings about 30 kilometers apart. Due to the distance between the locations, the engineer selects single-mode fiber. What specifications does the engineer need to consider with this decision?
A.Large core, long distances, short wavelength
B.Small core, long distances, long wavelength
C.Large core, short distances, long wavelength
D.Small core, short distances, short wavelength
Small core, long distances, long wavelength
Single-mode fiber (SMF) has a small core (8-10 microns) and is designed to carry a long wavelength over long distances.
Multi-mode fiber (MMF) does not support such high signaling speeds or long distances as single-mode. MMF uses less expensive and less coherent LEDs or vertical cavity surface emitting lasers.
Multi-mode fiber (MMF) has a larger core than single-mode fiber (62.5 or 50 microns) and is designed to carry a short wavelength infrared light.
Single-mode cables support data rates up to 10 Gbps or better and cable runs many kilometers, depending on the optics and cable quality.
2.6: An organization looks to harden email services. The systems administrator uses every possible option to help prevent SPAM and other anomalies. During the final stages of configuration, the systems administrator creates a policy within the Domain Name System (DNS) to handle authentication failures. What is being configured?
MX
SPF
DMARC
DKIM
DMARC
The Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC specifies a policy mechanism for senders to specify how authentication failures should be treated.
A mail exchange (MX) record is used to identify an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it.
The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a TXT resource record published via DNS to identify the hosts authorized to send email from that domain.
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) uses cryptography to validate the source server for a given email message. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public encryption key as a TXT record.
2.2: An engineer plans a new wired infrastructure rollout that will support wireless capabilities. For this rollout, the cable length is approximately 328 feet and includes the incorporation of access points that supplies 48V of power around 13 watts. Which specific IEEE standard does the engineer implement?
A.802.3at
B.802.3af
C.802.3bt
D.802.3
802.3af
The 802.3af standard allows powered devices to draw up to about 13 W. Power is supplied as 350mA@48V and limited to 15.4 W. Usable wattage usually falls around 13 W.
The 802.3at (PoE+) standard allows powered devices to draw up to about 25 W, with a maximum current of 600 mA.
The 802.3bt (PoE++ or 4PPoE) supplies up to about 51 W (Type 3) or 73 W (Type 4) usable power.
The 802.3 standard is an overall arching standard that covers Ethernet usage. While the implementation falls under 802.3, it is not specific to the application.
3.4: A new computer experiences a malfunction with a touch input device. A support engineer disassembles the computer to diagnose the problem. While troubleshooting, which component would the technician find has a 9-pin header on the motherboard?
A.Power button
B.USB port
C.Drive activity light
D.PSU main motherboard power
USB port
Internal USB 2 connections are made via 9-pin headers, which accept up to two 4-pin port connections while the 9th pin is to orient the cable correctly.
The power button is not a 9-pinned header and is used to send a signal that can be interpreted by the OS as a command to shut down rather than switching the PC off.
Drive (HDD/SSD) activity lights are active when an internal storage disk is being accessed.
The main P1 motherboard power connector is a distinctive 24-pin connector or 20-pin for legacy motherboards that supplies the main power for the motherboard.
3.7: A printer technician troubleshoots a laser printer and determines that the exposing stage of the print job is the issue with print jobs printing incorrectly. What does the technician suspect is happening?
The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge.
B.The OS driver is improperly encoding the page in a page description language.
C.The imaging drum is not being conditioned by the primary charge roller.
D.The toner is not being fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller.
The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge.
In the exposing stage, as the laser receives the image information, it fires a short pulse of light for each dot in the raster to neutralize the charge that was applied by the PCR. In this stage, the imaging drum loses its charge when functioning properly.
During the processing stage, the OS driver encodes the page in a page description language and sends it to the print device for processing.
In the charging stage, the imaging drum is conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR). The PCR is a metal roller with a rubber coating powered by a high voltage power supply assembly.
In the developing stage, the toner is fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller from a hopper.
3.4: A hardware technician replaces the central processing unit (CPU) on an Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) motherboard. What must be applied when connecting the heat sink to the CPU?
Thermal grease
B.Locking lever
C.CPU socket
D.PIN grid array (PGA)
Thermal grease
During the installation of the heat sink on top of the CPU, a small amount of thermal grease must be applied in an X-pattern to allow for heat transference to be most successful.
The CPU locking lever is on the motherboard and is used to lock the CPU in place. This is done before the heat sink is installed.
The CPU socket is the socket on the motherboard where the CPU will be installed.
PIN Grid Array (PGA) is a type of CPU socket form factor that is used by AMD processors.
5.6: A user contacts a printer technician to report that every print job sent to a laser printer has lines of toner in the same location on every page that is printed. The user checked the feed rollers for the technician and reported that they were clean. What does the technician thus suggest may need cleaning or replacing?
A.Toner
B.Drum
C.Fuser
D.Pins
Drum
Marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum.
If there was speckling of toner on the printouts, loose toner may be getting onto the paper. The inside of the printer would need to be cleaned using an approved toner vacuum.
If the toner was not fused to the paper properly by having an output that smudges easily, then this would indicate that the fuser needs replacing.
Pins are used with a dot matrix printer. Lines in dot matrix printer output indicate a stuck pin in the print head.
Several users of a shared printer complain that the printer is printing on both sides of a sheet of paper when it should only print on one side. What setting does a technician change?
A.Orientation
B.Badging
C.Quality
D.Duplex
Duplex
Duplex printing refers to the capability of a printer to print on both sides of a sheet of paper. The technician would adjust this setting to single-sided printing.
The orientation setting on a printer refers to having a print job use portrait or landscape mode.
Badging means the print device is fitted with a smart card reader. The employee must present their ID badge to the reader to start the print job.
The quality of a print job allows for the selection of the proper type of paper stock (size and type) to use and whether to use an economy or draft mode to preserve ink/toner.
2.1: A manufacturing firm uses an older Windows NT computer to operate a unique piece of machinery. To support such a legacy system on the network, what common port settings are enabled for communications?
A.3389 RDP
B.137-139 NETBIOS
C.161 SNMP
D.389 LDAP
137-139 NETBIOS
Ports 137-139 (UDP/TCP) are used for NETBIOS over TCP/IP communications. NETBIOS is used on a modern network to support networking features for legacy versions of Windows.
Port 3389 is a common TCP port that is used on Windows computers as a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to make a remote graphical connection to another system.
Port 161 is a common UDP port for the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). SNMP is used to query status information from network devices.
Port 389 is a common TCP port that is used for the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP). LDAP is used to query information about network users and other network resources.
3.4: A critical system is set to use secure boot. What properties are characteristic of the secure boot process? (Select all that apply.)
The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.
B.The operating system boot loader is digitally signed.
C.The microprocessor is hard coded with a unique key.
D.It can be managed through the operating system.
The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.
The operating system boot loader is digitally signed.
Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. With secure boot, the computer firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.
With secure boot, the firmware can identify trusted code and ensure that the bootloader has been digitally signed by the OS vendor.
A trusted platform module (TPM) microprocessor is hard coded with a unique, unchangeable key, referred to as the endorsement key.
TPM can be enabled or disabled and reset via the system setup program. TPM can be managed from the OS as well.
1.4: What is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise?
A.Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP)
B.Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM)
C.Two-factor authentication (2FA)
D.Mobile device synchronization (sync)
Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM)
Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise. The two main functions of the EMM suite are Mobile Device Management (MDM) and Mobile Application Management (MAM).
Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) is a protocol used in the accessing of email from multiple devices. This protocol allows the user to view messages on a server but will not delete the email from the server until the user specifically deletes the message.
Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a two-part authentication protocol such as a PIN and fingerprint.
Mobile device synchronization (sync) is the process of copying data back and forth between devices.
2.4: A systems administrator looks to control HTTP requests from client computers based on the time of day. What type of service does the administrator deploy when configuring clients in a non-transparent manner?
A.Load balancer
B.Proxy server
C.Unified threat management
D.Embedded system
Proxy server
A proxy can perform a security function by acting as a content filter to block access to sites deemed inappropriate. A non-transparent proxy requires client configuration for the proxy server.
A load balancer can be deployed to distribute client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool.
A unified threat management (UTM) appliance is one that enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions.
An embedded system is an electronic device that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. An embedded system does not describe the deployed service.
1.1 An employee at an organization requests a laptop upgrade. The request is for a laptop that is extremely lightweight. There is also a requirement for the fastest speeds possible in order to demo the company’s software to potential clients. With these requirements in mind, which drive type should the laptop have?
A.mSATA
B.M.2
C.2.5" HDD
D.1.8" HDD
M.2
An M.2 SSD usually interfaces with the PCI Express bus, allowing much higher bus speeds than SATA. M.2 adapters can be different lengths.
An SSD might be housed on a card with a Mini-SATA (mSATA) interface. These cards resemble Mini PCIe cards but are not physically compatible with Mini PCIe slots. mSATA uses the SATA bus, so the maximum transfer speed is 6 Gbps.
Traditional laptop HDDs are usually found with a 2.5" form factor. These drives are typically found in budget and heavier laptops.
Some laptops use a 1.8" HDD. HDDs are much slower (usually 5400 rpm models) than SSD.
5.3: A data scientist needs to run complex algorithms and machine learning programs that require a significant amount of computing power. The scientist tells the company's IT pro that their current computer is too slow and their data is backed up daily. What RAID configuration would be best for the data scientist where they don't need redundancy?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 10
RAID 0
Since the data scientist needs speed and computing power and is not concerned about data loss, RAID 0 is the best option. RAID 0 uses striping and spreads data across all disks in the array, sacrificing redundancy for speed.
RAID 1 uses mirroring with two disks. If one disk fails, the other takes over.
RAID 5 uses striping with distributed parity, meaning all information is spread across all disks in the array so that if one disk fails, data can be reconstructed from the remaining disks.
RAID 10 uses logical striping with two mirrored arrays. This configuration offers solid fault tolerance since a disk in each mirror can fail and the volume will still be available.
3.1: Which current USB standard supports 2 x 10 Gbps speeds and uses a USB-C connector type?
A.USB 3.2 Gen1
B.USB 3.2 Gen 2x1
C.USB 3.2 Gen 2x2
D.USB 3.1
USB 3.2 Gen 2x2
The universal serial bus (USB) 3.2 specification deprecated some of the older terms used to describe the supported transfer rates. USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 SuperSpeed USB is capable of 2 x 10 Gbps.
Iterations of the universal serial bus (USB) 3.x specification introduced new connector form factors and upgraded transfer rates. USB 3.2 Gen 1 SuperSpeed is capable of 5Gbps.
Each universal serial bus (USB) 3.x specification is full-duplex, so a device can send and receive simultaneously. USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 USB SuperSpeed is capable of 10 Gbps.
There have been several iterations of the universal serial bus (USB) standard. Each version introduces better data rates. USB 3.1 is now a past standard.
3.6: A technician is managing configuration settings in Windows for a LaserJet printer from the printer's properties dialog box. Among the following options, which one is NOT commonly found in the properties dialog box?
A.Sharing and permissions
B.Printing to a different port
C.Print in color or black and white
D.Configuring different feed trays
Print in color or black and white
In Windows, there are two main configuration dialogs for a local printer: printer properties and printing preferences. In contrast to the properties dialog box, the preferences dialog sets the default print job options, such as finishing options or whether to print in color or black and white.
A printer's properties dialog allows you to manage configuration settings for the printer object and the underlying hardware, such as updating the driver and printing to a different port.
A sharing and permissions option is commonly found on a Windows printer properties dialog box.
Device settings to configure default paper types for different feed trays can be found in a printer properties dialog box.
4.1: A company considers moving its infrastructure to the cloud. Management emphasizes the need to handle changes in resource usage in real-time. Which feature fulfills this need?
A.Shared resources
B.High availability
C.Rapid elasticity
D.Scalability
Rapid elasticity
Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. A system will not experience loss of service or performance if demand suddenly doubles.
In a cloud environment, resources are often shared. Pooling of shared resources means that the hardware making up the cloud provider's data center is not dedicated or reserved to a single customer account.
High availability (HA) means that the service experiences very little downtime. For example, a service with 99.999% availability experiences only 5 minutes and 15 seconds annual downtime.
Scalability means that the costs involved are linear. For example, if the number of users doubles in a system, the costs to maintain the same level of service would also double.
5.2: A user's computer powers on, but it does not pass the power on self-test (POST) and there is no display on the monitor. The IT specialist starts with the POST issue. Which of the following troubleshooting tests are appropriate in this situation? (Select all that apply.)
A.Check power management with ACPI.
B.Check for faulty devices by removing one device at a time to see if this fixes the problem.
C.Check for faulty devices by removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time.
D.Check for a faulty CPU.
Check for faulty devices by removing one device at a time to see if this fixes the problem.
C.Check for faulty devices by removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time.
D.Check for a faulty CPU.
A faulty device can halt the POST process. One way to test this is by removing devices one at a time to see if it resolves the problem.
If a computer cannot pass POST, a faulty device could be to blame. Removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time will identify the problem device if it exists.
A faulty central processing unit (CPU) could keep POST from executing, so replacing the CPU chip with a known good one will confirm or eliminate this as a cause.
The advanced configuration and power interface (ACPI) is a power management standard that defines power states such as "sleep" and "hibernate."
2.7: A remote facility cannot utilize a wired internet connection for a short period. When relying on a wireless solution, the company uses a technology that must be provisioned with a motor so it can periodically realign with the array. Which internet access technology is in use?
A.Geostationary orbital satellite internet access
B.Wireless internet service provider
C.Low Earth orbital satellite internet access
D.Global System for Mobile Communication
Low Earth orbital satellite internet access
Satellites positioned in low Earth orbit (LEO) have a drawback such that the satellites move relative to the surface of the Earth. Premises antennas must be provisioned with a motor so that they can periodically realign with the array.
A satellite-based microwave radio system provides far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. Satellites placed in a high geostationary orbit are impacted by increased latency.
A wireless internet service provider (WISP) uses ground-based long-range fixed access wireless technology.
The Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) refers to cellular usage that allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider.
3.7: A technician that is new to 3D printers needs to call service for a malfunctioning printer. The technician explains that the problem is with what looks to be a print-head. Which component does the tech report as a problem?
A.Extruder
B.Motion control
C.Build plate
D.Bed
Extruder
An extruder on a 3D printer is the equivalent of a print head in an inkjet printer. A motor in the extruder draws filament. It is melted and squirted onto the object.
A 3D printer has many moving parts. The gears, motors, and motion control enable the precise positioning of the extruder.
The print bed/build plate on a 3D printer is a flat glass plate onto which the material is extruded. The bed is usually heated to prevent the material from warping.
The bed/build surface on a 3D printer is a sheet placed onto the base plate to hold the object in position while printing but also allows its removal on completion.
3.5: A technician builds a spare computer with an older motherboard and purchases a new modular power supply. What type of P1 motherboard connector will the power supply most likely provide?
A.9-pin
B.20-pin
C.8-pin
D.20+4-pin
20+4-pin
Most modular power supply units (PSUs) have a 20+4-pin P1 adapter cable for compatibility with older motherboards with a 20-pin port.
Internal USB 2 connections are made via 9-pin headers. The front panel audio interface also has a 9-pin connector for attaching to the motherboard.
Motherboards with a 20-pin power port have been replaced with newer boards that have a 24-pin port.
A PSU will usually have several Molex and/or SATA device power connectors and 4/6/8-pins used for motherboard peripherals such as the CPU and adapter cards.
5.3: A computer has three disk drives. Which of the following RAID configurations will most likely be used with such a setup? (Select all that apply.)
RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 10
RAID 0
RAID 5
RAID 0 requires two or more disk drives. It works with as many disks as the computer can accommodate. It is a striping configuration where data is spread across the disks.
RAID 5 needs at least 3 disks but can be configured with more, depending on the system's capacity. RAID 5 is a striping configuration with parity.
RAID 1 is commonly used with just two disks although using additional disks is technically possible. It is a mirrored drive configuration where data from one disk is duplicated on the second disk.
RAID 10 needs at least four disks and the number of disks needs to be even. It is striping combined with mirroring.
5.6: A shared printer handles a lot of print jobs for a medium-sized company. As of late, all users are complaining about the print jobs having a speckled output. What does a printer maintenance technician find to be the problem?
A.The fuser needs replacing.
B.The feed rollers are dirty.
C.The charge roller is dirty.
D.Toner is loose in the printer.
Toner is loose in the printer.
The speckling of toner on output is likely caused by loose toner that may be getting onto the paper. Cleaning the inside of the printer using an approved toner vacuum is helpful.
When toner is not fused to the paper, a common symptom is an output that smudges easily. This indicates that the fuser needs replacing.
Vertical or horizontal lines on output, such as marks that appear in the same place, are often due to dirty feed rollers.
Black stripes or a whole page black indicates that the primary charge roller is dirty or damaged or that the high voltage power supply to the developer unit is malfunctioning.
5.7: A user complains about a faulty network connection on a laptop. A technician traces the Ethernet cable in the office to a direct connection in a 16-port smart switch. While investigating the switch’s activity, it becomes apparent that port flapping is occurring. What does the tech troubleshoot as a possible cause? (Select all that apply.)
Bad cabling
B.Latency
C.Faulty port
D.Interference
Bad cabling
Faulty port
Interference
Bad cabling can cause port flapping. If a cable has been pinched, twisted, or suffered any other type of physical damage, it may be faulty.
A port on a network interface card or the switch itself may be faulty. This could be caused by a number of issues, including a manufacturer's defect, damage from power, or it may simply be failing.
External interference is possible. While the path of the cabling is not known in the scenario, fluorescent lighting and other electronic devices might be causing interference.
Latency would not cause port flapping. Latency would be noted as a bandwidth and speed/performance issue.
5.5: A user states that a smartphone with a Li-ion battery does not hold a charge for as long as it did in the past and seems to charge slowly after replacing a lost adapter. The change was noticed over the last few months. What could be the cause? (Select all that apply.)
A.Swelling
B.Battery type
C.Aging battery
D.Aftermarket AC Adapter
Aging battery
Aftermarket AC Adapter
An aging battery would be the cause of charging issues, including the likelihood of a battery no longer holding a full charge. As batteries age, so does the charging lifetime.
An aftermarket or third party mobile power supply may impact how well a battery is being charged, as it may not have the manufacturer's power specifications needed for proper charging of the device.
Swelling is a symptom and not a cause of a battery problem. Swelling is the result of a defective, overheating, or aging battery.
Li-ion batteries are not related to a degrading charge.
4.1: Which cloud characteristic handles changes in demand requirements in real time?
A.Rapid elasticity
B.Scalability
C.High availability
D.Metered utilization
Rapid elasticity
Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real time. This type of system would not experience loss of service or performance if demand doubles.
Scalability means that the costs involved are linear. For example, if the number of users doubles, the costs to maintain the same level of service would also double
High availability (HA) means that the service experiences very little downtime. For example, a service with 99.999% availability experiences only 5 minutes and 15 seconds annual downtime.
The per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud is referred to as metered utilization. The metering measurement is based on the type of resource such as storage, processing, bandwidth, or active users.
2.4: A software engineer wants to share a specific set of files with external users to support an upcoming project. What protocol allows a client to upload and download files using encrypted services?
A.SMB
B.NETBIOS
C.HTTP
D.FTPS
FTPS
File Transfer Protocol-Secure (FTPS) allows a client to upload and download files from a network server. FTPS reduces security risks by using encryption services to protect plaintext passwords.
Server Message Block (SMB) is the application protocol underpinning file and printer sharing on Windows networks.
The earliest Windows networks used a protocol stack called the Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS). It is only required if the network must support file sharing for Windows versions earlier than Windows 2000.
The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server.
2.7: An organization experiences an internet outage. As fiber is being used, an engineer checks to see if the optical signal is being properly converted to an electrical signal. The router is connected using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord. What does the engineer check?
A.OLT
BPoP
C.PON
D.ONT
ONT
The optical network terminal (ONT) installed at the customer’s premises converts the optical signal to an electrical one. The ONT is connected to the customer’s router using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord.
An optical line terminal (OLT) is located in a street cabinet. From the OLT, splitters direct each subscriber’s traffic over a short length of fiber to an optical network terminal (ONT) installed at the customer’s premises.
A connection to an internet service provider's (ISP’s) network uses its nearest point of presence (PoP), such as a local telephone exchange.
A full fiber connection to a customer’s building is implemented as a passive optical network (PON). In a PON, a single fiber cable is run from the point of presence to a street cabinet.
5.7: An engineer troubleshooting a network connection identifies a port flapping problem. What should the engineer investigate as a possible cause? (Select all that apply.)
A.VLAN Assignment
B.Ethernet cable
C.NIC port
D.Switch port
Ethernet cable
NIC port
Switch port
A bad Ethernet cable, such as a cable that has a pinch or a kink in it, may experience intermittent connects and disconnects. Replacing the cable is recommended.
A network interface card (NIC) port may experience connection issues if the card has been physically damaged in any way.
As with a NIC port, a switch port can experience a malfunction. Such a malfunction in connectivity can be caused by a power surge or other physical damage.
VLAN assignment would not cause intermittent connectivity issues. It would typically be an all-or-nothing issue.
5.4: The projector in the conference room is experiencing intermittent shutdowns. The technician begins troubleshooting by checking all the connector cables. What are the next troubleshooting steps for the technician? (Select the best two choices.)
A.Check that the vents are free from dust.
B.Check that the bulb is not burned out.
C.Check that the LED array is situated properly.
D.Check that the fan is working.
Check that the vents are free from dust.
Check that the fan is working.
Overheating is the main cause of intermittent shutdowns for projectors. Dust in the vents of a projector is a likely cause of intermittent shutdowns because the blocked vents could lead to overheating.
When a projector shuts down intermittently, the technician should check that the fan is working. A projector uses a very strong bulb that becomes very hot and a faulty fan can cause overheating, which leads to shutdowns.
Projector bulbs have a limited lifespan, so a burned-out bulb is not uncommon and does not result in intermittent shutdowns.
An LED array is more commonly found in a PC monitor than a projector but does not lead to intermittent shutdowns.
3.4: A user complains that a computer is too slow when opening numerous applications. A technician suggests purchasing a new computer that features CMP capabilities to handle the user's workload. Which statement describes the technician’s suggestion?
A.A single execution unit and set of registers for processes
B.A multi-socket motherboard for multiple CPUs
C.Multiple processing cores combined in the same package
D.Multiple parallel thread capability within a process
Multiple processing cores combined in the same package
A multi-core central processing unit (CPU) is multiple processors combined in one. This means that there are multiple execution units and registers. This is referred to as chip level multiprocessing (CMP).
A single-core CPU has a single execution unit and set of registers implemented on a single package. This essentially means that the system has a single processor.
The use of two or more physical CPUs is referred to as symmetric multiprocessing (SMP). An SMP-aware OS can then make efficient use of CPUs on a multi-socket motherboard.
Simultaneous multithreading (SMT) is referred to as HyperThreading by Intel. A thread is a stream of instructions generated by a software application. SMT allows the threads to run through the CPU at the same time.
1.1: A technician needs to repair a laptop. Symptoms are that some keyboard characters are not typing properly and the fingerprint reader is not recognized. What type of component is the technician inspecting?
A.SODIMM slot
B.M.2 slot
C.PCIe card
D.Ribbon cables
Ribbon cables
When replacing components such as a keyboard or touchpad, a connection is made to the motherboard via a data cable, typically with a flat ribbon cable type.
Laptop RAM is packaged in a smaller form factor called Small Outline DIMM (SODIMM). The memory is typically fitted into slots that pop up at a 45º angle.
A solid-state disk (SSD) can be provisioned in an adapter card form factor. These often use an M.2 interface. An M.2 port is oriented horizontally.
The peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus is the mainstream interface for modern adapter cards.
3.4: A PC tech plugs a x4 PCIe adapter card into a x8 socket. What speed would the card be capable of running? (Select all that apply.)
A.x1
B.x4
C.x16
D.x8
x1
x4
Each PCIe adapter card supports a specific number of lanes. Ideally, the card should be plugged into a port that supports the same number. Often a card will only work at x1 if in a mismatched port.
If insufficient slots are available, a card will fit in any port with an equal or greater number of lanes. The card may work at x4.
A card may be plugged into a port with a greater number of lanes. This is called up-plugging. The card, however, will not work at x16.
Additionally, a card may be plugged into a x8 port, which has a larger number of lanes, but will not work either.
2.7: A college campus is spread throughout an entire city. There is a plan to upgrade the connectivity to all buildings for increased speed. What type do engineers upgrade to?
B.WAN
C.LAN
D.PAN
MAN
A metropolitan area network (MAN) refers to a specific network type covering an area equivalent to a city or other municipality. The upgraded campus network will be this type of network.
A wide area network (WAN) spans multiple geographic locations. One example of a WAN is the internet.
A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers connected by cabling and one or more network switches that are all installed at a single geographical location such as within a single building.
A personal area network (PAN) refers to using wireless connectivity to connect to devices at a range of a few
1.4: A systems administrator is wanting to use a process in which the TCP/IP protocol is used to query and update an X.500 directory. What can be used to accomplish this task?
A.POP3
B.IMAP
C.LDAP
D.SMTP
LDAP
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update an X.500 directory. LDAP uses TCP and UDP port 389 by default.
The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) will download any mail to the device, removing it from the server mailbox. Configuring a device to use an Exchange server will not use POP3.
The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is useful for accessing email on multiple devices as this protocol does not remove email from the server.
An outgoing mail server sends outbound emails. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server is used for sending an email.
1.4: A systems administrator is wanting to use a process in which the TCP/IP protocol is used to query and update an X.500 directory. What can be used to accomplish this task?
A.POP3
B.IMAP
C.LDAP
D.SMTP
LDAP
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update an X.500 directory. LDAP uses TCP and UDP port 389 by default.
The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) will download any mail to the device, removing it from the server mailbox. Configuring a device to use an Exchange server will not use POP3.
The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is useful for accessing email on multiple devices as this protocol does not remove email from the server.
An outgoing mail server sends outbound emails. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server is used for sending an email.
5.2: While troubleshooting a user's computer that has no power, the technician eliminated these possible causes: power supply, processor, cabling, wall socket, and connection issue. Therefore, which of the following could be the problem?
A.Faulty CPU
B.Corrupted BIOS
C.Faulty motherboard
D.Corrupted boot sector
Faulty motherboard
Given all of the potential causes that were discounted by the technician, a faulty motherboard is the only available option that would cause a computer to have no power.
A faulty CPU can cause several problems, such as booting issues and frequent shutdowns. But, it will not cause the computer to have no power.
A corrupted BIOS will thwart the booting process, but it will not result in the computer having no power.
A corrupted boot sector will prevent Windows from loading and produce error messages such as "Boot device not found" or "OS not found" but it does not lead to no power.
1.4: A company places restrictions on the specific components and ports of mobile devices. This includes USB ports and cameras. Which specific enterprise management solution does the company deploy for this purpose?
A.MAM
B.MDM
C.EMM
D.SYNC
MDM
Mobile Device Management (MDM) systems primarily focus on managing mobile devices in enterprise settings. They allow organizations to set specific policies that control various features of the device, including restricting access to components such as USB ports and cameras.
A mobile application management (MAM) system sets policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevents data transfer to personal apps.
Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise. This is a broad term that encompasses MDM and MAM.
Sync is an application feature that allows for the synchronization of data. Email, for example, is a popular application that features synchronization. Microsoft Exchange server features ActiveSync.
4.1 A large technical firm deploys a cloud service. The service offers cloud storage along with web development capabilities. What deployment model does the firm utilize when a multi-tiered subscription option is available to the general consumers?
A.Private
B.Public
C.Hybrid
Public
A public (or multitenant) model is a service offered over the internet by cloud service providers (CSPs) to cloud consumers, often referred to as tenants. With this model, a cloud service provider can offer subscriptions or pay-as-you-go.
A private model is a cloud infrastructure that is completely private and owned and used by an organization.
A hybrid model is a cloud computing solution that implements some sort of hybrid public/private/community.
A community cloud is where several organizations share the costs of either a hosted private or fully private cloud.
4.2: An engineer configures a workstation for development testing by using virtualization. The engineer chooses to use a type 1 hypervisor. Which statements describe the environment? (Select all that apply.)
A.The hypervisor is a part of a bare-metal platform.
B.The hypervisor is installed within an OS.
C.The hypervisor is host-based.
D.The hypervisor is managing access to the host hardware directly.
The hypervisor is a part of a bare-metal platform.
The hypervisor is managing access to the host hardware directly.
A bare metal virtual platform means that a type 1 hypervisor is installed directly onto the computer and manages access to the host hardware without going through a host OS.
When a hypervisor is installed directly on the hardware of a host system, it is a type 1 hypervisor. This type has direct access to hardware on the host.
A hypervisor application that is installed onto a host OS itself is known as a type 2 hypervisor. VMWare Workstation and Parallels are examples.
In a guest OS (or host-based) system, a hypervisor is installed within the operating system of the physical host machine.
2.3: A company implements a new wireless Infrastructure. During the installation, an engineer adjusts the signal of all antennas for optimal performance. Which setting does the engineer use to measure dBi?
A.Transmit power
B.Effective isotropic radiated power
C.Antenna gain
D.Frequency band
Antenna gain
Antenna gain is the amount that a signal is boosted by directionality. This focuses the signal in a single direction rather than spreading it over a wide area. Gain is measured in dBi (decibels isotropic).
Transmit power is the basic strength of the radio, measured in dBm.
Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) is the sum of transmit power and gain, expressed in dBm.
Every Wi-Fi device operates on a specific radio frequency range within an overall frequency band. Each frequency band is split into a series of smaller ranges referred to as channels.
1.3: A universal asynchronous receiver transmitter (UART) port was traditionally a physical serial port in a legacy system. In a modern mobile device, how can a UART be utilized? (Select all that apply.)
A.Wi-Fi
B.Bluetooth
C.USB
D.Ethernet
Bluetooth
USB
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. A Bluetooth connection does use a UART.
A universal serial bus (USB) connection allows systems to easily use peripherals and more. A USB connection does use a UART.
Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices. Wi-Fi does not use a UART.
Ethernet is a networking standard that covers a variety of wired and wireless technologies. An Ethernet connection does not use a UART.
3.1 A user tries to connect a second monitor to a computer. The computer has an available digital visual interface (DVI) connector and the monitor has a video graphics array (VGA) connector. After some consideration, a technician decides upon a solution that supports both analog and digital outputs. Which type of cable does the technician recommend?
A.DVI-D
B.DVI-A
C.DVI-I
D.USB-C
DVI-I
DVI-I is a technology that is capable of connecting a digital source to an analog display or an analog source to a digital display. A VGA to DVI-I cable will connect your digital computer to an analog monitor.
DVI-D is available in both single link and dual link. A DVI-D cable is intended to be used between two digital devices. As VGA is analog, a DVI-D cable will not be useful.
DVI-A is a technology that carries an analog signal to an analog device. This cable along with an adapter for a VGA connector is required.
USB adapters to convert connector types, such as USB-C to USB-A but this is not applicable for this situation.
2.5: An organization conducts a weekly video conference from its home office to its field locations. Recently, employees at the field locations have been complaining of poor audio and video quality. Which protocol does an engineer monitor for performance issues?
A.UDP
B.TCP
C.IP
D.MAC
UDP
The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is an unreliable, connectionless protocol. It is used in time-sensitive applications, such as audio or video. Lost data results in poor audio and video streaming.
The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) guarantees connection-oriented forwarding of packets. TCP can identify and recover from lost or out-of-order packets and is not suitable for audio and video data communications.
The Internet Protocol (IP) provides packet addressing and routing within a network of networks.
A media access control (MAC) address is a physical hardware address of a device and is not a protocol.
4.1: What service provides on-demand resources like server instances, file storage, databases, or applications over a network?
A.Software-defined networking (SDN)
B.Cloud computing
C.Local area network (LAN)
D.Software as a service (SaaS)
Cloud computing
Cloud computing is a service that provides on-demand resources such as server instances, file storage, databases, or applications over a network, typically the internet.
Software-defined networking (SDN) is a model for the rapid provisioning and de-provisioning of cloud-based servers and networks.
A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers connected by cabling and one or more network switches that are all installed at a single geographical location.
Software as a service (SaaS) is a model of provisioning software applications. Rather than purchasing software licenses for a given number of seats, a business would access software hosted on a supplier's servers on a pay-as-you-go arrangement.
3.7: A printer technician works in a corporate office. Their office has multiple types of printers that require regular maintenance. Which type of printer maintenance includes replacing and properly disposing of a toner print cartridge?
A.3-D printer maintenance
B.Impact printer Maintenance
C.Inkjet printer maintenance
D.Laser printer maintenance
Laser printer maintenance
Laser printers are printers that use toner for printing documents. Toner is kept in a cartridge that may need to be replaced during normal printer maintenance.
A 3D print process builds a solid object from successive layers of material. Though there are multiple types of 3-D printers with varying functions, common printer maintenance includes cleaning the print bed and extruder and replacing used filament.
Impact printers are printers that strike an inked ribbon against various forms of paper to leave a mark. Common maintenance includes replacing the ribbon and feeding in new tractor paper if used.
Inkjet printer maintenance commonly focuses on paper stocking and replacing or refilling ink cartridges.
2.8: Engineers need to share data between the team's laptop devices that are located in the same office space. The speed needs to be at least 50 Mbps. Which technology do the engineers use?
A.Wi-Fi
B.Bluetooth
C.CDMA
D.NFC
Wi-Fi
Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices.
A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. A Bluetooth connection does not support the desired bandwidth.
Code division multiple access (CDMA) refers to a cellular device and means that the handset is directly managed by the provider and there is no removable SIM card.
Many mobile devices have near-field communication (NFC) chips built-in. NFC allows for very short-range data transmission (up to about 20 cm/8 in.) to activate a receiver chip in a contactless reader.
3.5: A computer technician replaces the power supply in a desktop system. To do this, the technician needs to know the output of the current power supply unit (PSU). What is the PSU output capability measured as?
A.Voltage
B.Power
C.Wattage rating
D.Efficiency
Wattage rating
The PSU’s output capability is measured as its wattage rating. Power is measured in watts (W), calculated for electrical components as voltage multiplied by current (V*I).
The voltage coming into a PSU is the input voltage. Though it is important to assess the power distribution for its output voltages, it is not how the PSU output capability is measured.
Power is the rate at which things generate or use energy. Power is measured in watts (W), calculated for electrical components as voltage multiplied by current (V*I).
The efficiency is calculated as wattage drawn from the power grid divided by the wattage the PSU is rated at. This is not, however, how the PSU output capability is measured.
1.4: A company realizes that it needs to implement a management solution for mobile phones. Which solution is specific to the restriction of apps installed from a device’s app store?
A.MAM
B.EMM
C.MDM
D.BYOD
MAM
Mobile application management (MAM) is part of an enterprise mobility management (EMM) suite that sets policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevents data transfer to personal apps. This type of solution configures an enterprise-managed container or workspace.
Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise.
Mobile device management (MDM) sets device policies for authentication, feature use (camera and microphone), and connectivity. MDM can also allow device resets and remote wipes.
With bring your own device (BYOD), employees are allowed to use a personally owned device to access corporate accounts, apps, and data. BYOD can raise security concerns.
3.6: A college would like to implement a secured print solution so that print jobs do not arrive at a printer until the printer is physically interacted with. This will help prevent students from potentially picking up faculty print jobs. Which two physical security solutions does the IT department consider to accomplish this? (Select all that apply.)
A.Driver
B.PIN code
C.Badging
D.Permissions
PIN code
Badging
A secured print job is held on the print device until the user authenticates directly with the print device. A PIN entry requires the user to input the correct password via the device control panel.
Secured print mitigates the risk of confidential information being intercepted from the output tray. Badging means the print device is fitted with a smart card reader that enables print output to be retrieved.
Drivers refer to the software required for a computer and computer application to communicate with a printer.
Permissions for a print job refer to the ability to send a job to the printer. Permissions are configured with software controls.
4.2: Which type of virtualization refers to any solution designed to run on ordinary desktops or workstations?
A.Server-side virtualization
B.Application virtualization
C.Container virtualization
D.Client-side virtualization
Client-side virtualization
Client-side virtualization is any solution designed to run on "ordinary" desktops or workstations. Each user will be interacting from a PC with the virtualization host directly.
Server-side virtualization is the process of deploying a server as a virtual machine. The server virtual machine (VM) can then be accessed from multiple clients for a given purpose.
In application virtualization, the client computer will either stream an application from the server for local processing or access an application hosted on a server.
Container virtualization requires resource separation at the OS level
3.1: A technician plugs a USB device into a computer and notices that the speeds are slightly less than expected. The USB port and device are USB 3.x devices, and the achieved speed is roughly 9 Gbps. What USB standard is in use?
A.USB 3.2 Gen 2x1
B.USB 3.2 Gen 1
C.USB 3.2 Gen 2x2
D.USB 2.0
USB 3.2 Gen 2x1
Variations of USB 3.x introduced new connector form factors and faster transfer rates than previous versions. USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 is capable of speeds up to 10 Gbps.
The USB 3.2 Gen 1 Superspeed USB standard is capable of up to 5 Gbps. The legacy designation of this standard is USB 3.0.
The USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 Superspeed USB is capable of 2 x 10 Gbps. While other standards can use a variety of connector types, this standard strictly uses USB-C.
USB 2.0 is a high speed standard that specifies a data rate of 480 Mbps that is shared between all devices attached to the same controller.
4.2: Systems administrators deploy a virtualization solution that separates host resources for each instance that is running at the operating system level. Which solution is running?
A.Type 1 hypervisor
B.Type 2 hypervisor
C.Container
D.VM
Container
With a container, resource separation occurs at the OS level. The OS defines isolated containers for each user instance to run in. Each container is allocated CPU and memory resources, but the processes run through the native OS kernel.
A bare metal virtual platform means that a type 1 hypervisor is installed directly onto the computer and manages access to the host hardware without going through a host OS.
A hypervisor application that is installed onto a host OS itself is known as a type 2 hypervisor. VMWare Workstation and Parallels are examples.
Client-side virtualization refers to any solution designed to run on desktops or workstations. A traditional virtual machine (VM) runs on what is known as a hypervisor.
5.2: A hard disk drive in a system experiences extended read and write times. What is likely the cause? (Select all that apply.)
A.Disk thrashing
B.Bad sectors
C.Bad blocks
D.Data corruption
Bad sectors
Bad blocks
Bad sectors may be found on a traditional hard disk. While bad sectors can be marked as unusable, having them present is usually a sign of a failing disk.
Bad blocks may be found on a hard disk. A block is a grouping of sectors. A single sector or multiple sectors in a block may have gone bad.
Constant LED activity, often referred to as disk thrashing, can be a sign that there is not enough system RAM so that the disk is being used continually for paging (virtual memory).
Data corruption is caused by a failing disk and will not cause extended read and write times.
3.2: A technician installs memory into a computer that supports a multi-channel configuration. A 4GB module is placed in bank A1 and a 12GB module is placed in bank B1. A diagnostic tool reports that 16GB is useable, but not as multi-channel. What mode does the system use in making all of the memory available?
A.Single-channel
B.Flex
C.Dual-channel
D.ECC
Flex
In flex mode, memory that is of equal value within each channel can work as dual-channel while the remainder of the memory will work in single-channel mode.
In a modern system, single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the central processing unit (CPU), memory controller, and RAM devices.
In a modern system with a dual-channel memory controller, there are two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU. This means that 128 bits of data can be sent per transfer.
Error correcting code (ECC) RAM is used for systems that require a high level of reliability. For each data transfer, ECC RAM performs a hash calculation.
5.4: A user's monitor displays a distortedly large image. To fix the resolution problem, the IT specialist performs which software troubleshooting steps? (Select all that apply.)
A.Use the OSD to check configuration settings on the graphics card.
B.Check the configuration of the video card.
C.Update the video card driver.
D.Check that the monitor is powered on.
Check the configuration of the video card.
Update the video card driver.
If the output resolution of the video card does not match the resolution of the display device's native resolution, the image on the screen may be distorted and the card needs to be configured correctly.
Updating the video card driver will install the most recent version of the driver, which should fix the configuration compatibility problem.
The OSD does not check configuration settings but does allow a user to adjust screen functions, such as contrast, aspect ratio, and brightness.
A monitor that is not powered on will remain dark and will NOT produce a fuzzy image.
1.3: A user complains about the quality of the display on a laptop. The user mentions that the laptop has been in use since the company started many years ago. IT determines that the display uses a very early thin film transistor (TFT) technology and will replace the laptop. Which TFT technology does the display use?
Twisted nematic
In an early TFT implementation, twisted nematic (TN) crystals twist or untwist in response to the voltage level. This is the earliest type of TFT technology that can be in budget displays.
Vertical alignment displays use crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports wide color gamut and the best contrast ratio performance.
In an organic LED (OLED) display, or technically an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED), each pixel is generated by a separate LED. This is not a TFT display.
In-plane switching (IPS) displays use crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles. Most IPS panels support 178/178 degree horizontal and vertical viewing angles.
4.2: A security team at a company discovers that malware is moving from one guest OS to another VM in attempts to interact with the hypervisor. What security issue is occurring?
A.Escape
B.Extension
C.Intrusion
D.Sprawl
Escape
Virtual machine escaping (VM escaping) refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or to the host system itself.
An extension may refer to a number of things. With virtualization, the central processing unit (CPU) uses extensions to enable virtualization features within the host and guest operating systems.
Intrusion refers to a malicious actor gaining unauthorized access to a system.
The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as virtual machine sprawl (VM sprawl). Such action may happen as a result of malicious activity.
5.7: When troubleshooting internet connectivity issues on a wired network, the first step is to make sure the patch cables are working and physically connected to the network ports. If that is not the problem, what is the next troubleshooting step?
A.Update the NIC driver.
B.Verify the Ethernet speed and duplex configuration are set to auto-negotiate.
C.Check that Wi-Fi is turned on.
D.Use a loopback tool to test for bad ports.
Use a loopback tool to test for bad ports.
After eliminating patch cables as a probable cause, the next step in troubleshooting internet connectivity is to test for bad ports using a loopback tool. This will verify the integrity of the network interface port by checking that it can receive a signal generated by itself.
Updating the network interface card (NIC) driver is a legitimate troubleshooting step, but should occur after testing for bad ports.
Verifying that Ethernet speed and duplex configuration are set to auto-negotiate is a legitimate troubleshooting step, but should occur after testing for bad ports.
Checking that Wi-Fi is turned on is not relevant since this is a wired network.
5.6: The office laser printer starts printing pages that smudge easily. The IT specialist is proficient in the common printing defects of laser printers and knows what is causing the problem. What will the IT specialist do to fix the problem?
A.Clean the blocked ink nozzle.
B.Realign the transfer belt.
C.Replace the fuser.
D.Adjust the platen gap.
Replace the fuser
The IT specialist will replace the fuser because smudging print indicates that the toner is not fusing to the paper.
Ink nozzles spray ink onto paper and are part of an inkjet printer. Blocked ink nozzles cause lines to run through printed pages.
A transfer belt applies a charge to the paper so that it attracts toner from the photoconductor. A misaligned transfer belt causes a cast or shadow-like effect on printouts.
The platen is part of a dot matrix printer. It adjusts the gap between paper and the print head to accommodate different paper types. The incorrect adjustment could cause smudging.
4.2: A developer asks the IT department if virtualization would be possible to test software in a sandboxed environment. The developer’s workstation runs Windows 10, the central processing unit (CPU) has virtualization technology enabled, and has plenty of resources for virtual machines. Which Type 2 hypervisor does the IT staff install?
A.Parallels Workstation
B.VMWare Workstation
C.VMWare ESXi
D.Microsoft Hyper-V
VMWare Workstation
VMWare Workstation would be the best choice of the available options. VMWare workstation is a type 2 hypervisor that would easily install in the Windows 10 operating system and provide the features the developer requires.
Parallels Workstation is a type 2 hypervisor, however, it is software that is installed on a Mac computer to allow the virtualization of a guest operating system such as Windows 10.
VMWare ESXi is a type 1 hypervisor that is designed for bare-metal install in a server environment.
Hyper-V is a type 1 hypervisor. While Hyper-V is available in the Windows 10 operating system, the IT department installs a type 2.
2.7: A technician looks to wire an office for a medium-sized local area network (LAN). When considering the available standards and speeds, the technician decides to implement Gigabit Ethernet. What specific standard does the technician use?
A.1000BASE-T
B.100BASE-T
C.10GBASE-T
D.IEEE 802.3
1000BASE-T
1000BASE-T refers to Gigabit Ethernet over copper twisted pair cabling. Gigabit Ethernet works at 1000 Mbps (or 1 Gbps). 1000BASE-T is the mainstream choice of standard for most LANs.
100BASE-T refers to Fast Ethernet over copper twisted pair cabling. Fast Ethernet works at 100 Mbps.
10GBASE-T refers to a copper cabling standard working at 10 Gbps.
Most cabled LANs are based on the 802.3 Ethernet standards maintained by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). 802.3 covers more than just Gigabit Ethernet. The IEEE 802.3 standards are designated xBASE-Y, where x is the nominal data rate and Y is the cable type.
1.3: What is the modern Android-based smartphone and tablet connector for wired peripherals and charging?
A.Micro-B USB
B.Mini-B
C.USB-C
D.Lightning
USB-C
USB-C is the modern and current type of connector for Android-based smartphones and tablets. Laptops may also use USB-C ports. These can serve as either standard USB-C ports or function as Thunderbolt ports.
Micro-B USB connector form factors are only found on older models of Android devices. Micro-USB devices are being phased out in favor of the USB-C connector.
Mini-B USB connectors are less common and are still found on some game consoles and other hardware.
The Lightning connector is a proprietary connector for Apple phones and tablets. This type of port is still used currently. However, some of the latest iPad models, such as the iPad Pro, use USB-C.
1.1: When upgrading the RAM on multiple standardized laptops, what is the most important factor to consider to ensure compatibility with the existing hardware?
A.Size of pins
B.HDD size
C.AC adapter power rating
D.DDR version
DDR version
The DDR version of a laptop is critical in the upgrade process. For example, a laptop designed to run DDR4 cannot run DDR3 RAM.
It is the number of pins, and not size, on the RAM module that can affect compatibility with the laptop's existing hardware; however, the DDR version is the most important factor to consider to ensure compatibility.
The HDD drive size on a laptop will vary. Though it is important to get a properly sized HDD, it does not affect the RAM.
A laptop AC adapter is an external power supply that converts power from AC to the DC voltages used by the laptop. This is not a consideration for RAM upgrades.
2.4: A network administrator adds several network printers to a business network. Users can install the printers easily by browsing resources that are available for use. Which protocol enables the ability for the printer to have an automatically populated address book?
A.NAS
C.LDAP
D.SSO
LDAP
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update resources in an X.500 directory. It is widely supported in current directory products such as Windows Active Directory.
A network access server (NAS) is an access appliance, such as a switch, access point, and VPN (a gateway that allows client access to a network).
An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server consolidates authentication services across multiple access devices.
Some protocols allow a user to authenticate once to access a network and gain authorization for all the compatible application servers running on it. This is referred to as single sign-on (SSO).
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