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Last updated 4:36 PM on 3/24/26
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102 Terms

1
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What are fungal cell walls composed of?

chitin (molds) or glucans and mannans (yeast)

2
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In a lab, how are unknown species of fungi identified?

by microscopic examination of asexual spores

3
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Long filaments of fungal cells are called what?

hyphae

4
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Do algae have cell walls?

yes- composition varies by species (cellulose, silica, etc)

5
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What are 2 purposes of a universal taxonomic system?

Provides universal names of organisms and is a reference for ID of organisms

6
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athletes foot, jock itch, and ringworm are examples of what type of fungal infection?

dermatophyte infections- commonly caused by the Trichophyton genera (sac fungi)

7
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What does Candida albicans cause?

thrush, vaginal yeast infections and infections of moist skin

8
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What are the two mechanisms by which asexual reproduction occurs in fungi?

1) fragmentation of hyphae and 2) asexual spores released from hyphae

9
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A mass of hyphae is called what?

mycelium

10
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Algae generally do not infect humans, so how do they cause human illness?

Some algae produce toxins!

11
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What algae produces red tide?

the dinoflagellates of the Alexandrium genera

12
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Which categories of algae produce toxins?

diatoms and dinoflagellates

13
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Fungi are often referred to as plant-like. Do fungi perform photosynthesis?

NO

14
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Are fungi heterotrophs or autotrophs?

heterotrophs (chemoheterotrophs)

15
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What is it called when the nucleus of a donor fungal cell penetrates the cytoplasm of a recipient cell?

plasmogamy

16
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What is the study of fungi called?

mycology

17
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What are the kindgoms in the eukarya domain?

animalia, plantae, fungi

18
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What type of patients generally get Candida albicans infections?

immunocompromised and those undergoing antbiotic treatments

19
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In the current taxonomic system, what serves as the basis for how organisms are classified?

rRNA sequences

20
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What is meiosis?

it is when the diploid nucleus produces haploid sexual spores

21
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Are tapeworms hermaphroditic or dioecious?

hermaphroditic

22
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How are pinworms diagnosed?

Sticky tape diagnosis-eggs on perianal skin

23
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What is schizogony?

multiple splitting of the nucleus (asexual reproduction)

24
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What part of the body do Trichinella larvae go to during infection?

the larvae invade muscles and tissue

25
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When Plasmodium infects humans, what part of the body do the sporozoites migrate to to divide by asexual means?

liver

26
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What does Trichomonas vaginalis cause?

STD

27
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Why are mosquitos an important part of the Plasmodium replication cycle?

they sexually reproduction in mosquitos and mosquitos are the vector to spread it

28
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In general, how are helminth infections transmitted?

ingestion of eggs

29
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What is the vegetative (feeding and growing) stage of a protozoa called?

trophozoite

30
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Are merozoites the result of sexual or asexual reproduction?

asexual reproduction

31
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Do protozoa contain cell walls?

NO

32
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Are sporozoites the result of sexual or asexual reproduction?

sexual

33
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In general, how are helminth infections diagnosed?

by the presence of eggs in feces

34
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How are hookworm infections acquired?

larvae penetrate skin on feet, travel through blood to lungs then to intestine

35
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In many cases, how are protozoa infections transmitted?

ingesting of protozoal cysts

36
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What are protective capsules formed by protozoa under harsh conditions called?

cysts

37
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What does the nonmotile protozoa Plasmodium cause?

malaria

38
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Helminths simplified or reduced digestive, nervous and motility systems. What helminth process is quite complex?

helminths have complex reproduction strategies

39
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How can tapeworms be diagnosed?

Presence of eggs or proglottids (tapeworm segments) in feces

40
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What does hermaphroditic mean?

male and female reproductive structures are on the same animal

41
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What is the natural host for Trichinella sprialis

pigs and wild game (bears)

42
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What does the flagellate Giardia lamblia cause?

giardial enteritis (diarrhea)

43
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Are protozoa unicellular or multicellular?

unicellular

44
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How does sexual reproduction of protozoa occur?

fusion of micronuclei

45
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Which illness caused by Bacillus anthracis is most deadly?

the pulmonary form (anthrax)

46
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What is unique about Mycoplasma cells?

They lack a cell wall! They are also extremely small cells.

47
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When is Steptococci agalactiae (Strep B) a concern?

later in pregnancy

48
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What are the consequences of the very impermeable cell wall fo Mycobacterium?

They grow very slowly and are highly resistant to drugs and drying out.

49
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What illnesses is Strepococci pyogenes associated with?

Strept throat, rheumatic fever, glomerular nephritis and necrotizing fascitis

50
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What two genera of gram-positive bacteria form endospores?

clostridium and bacillus

51
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What are the two categories of MRSA?

hospital associated and community associated MRSA

52
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In what 3 ways are arthropods important as vectors?

mechanical transmission, reproduction in vector, sexual repro only in vector

53
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What types of infections does Enterococcus generally cause?

surgical wound and urinary tract infections

54
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What are some examples of diseases spread by ticks?

Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever

55
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What are some diseases spread by mosquitos?

malaria, dengue fever, yellow fever

56
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What human illness is Mycoplasma associated with?

"walking pneumonia" caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia

57
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Why are Lactobacillus important for our health?

Lactobacillus are normal flora and prevent infection with pathogens

58
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What does MRSA stand for?

methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

59
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What do Mycobacterium cause in humans?

TB (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) and leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae)

60
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In general, what types of infections does Staphylococcus cause?

skin infections and food poisoning (also TSS)

61
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Why are clostridium a concern with home canning?

C. botulinum causes botulism (anaerobic)

62
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What does VRE stand for?

vancomycin resistant enterococcus

63
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Are mycobacterium gram-positive or gram-negative?

neither! They are acid-fast bacteria (mycolic acid in cell wall)

64
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Bergey's manual now classifies bacteria based upon what?

rRNA sequences

65
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What about the Clostridium genera makes their diseases so virulent?

Clostridium produces toxins that have severe effects.

66
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Bacteria that is the most common cause of food poisoning.

Campylobacter jejuni

67
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What gram-negative bacteria causes Lyme disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi

68
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The cause of bacterial vaginosis is what?

Gardnerella vaginosis

69
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The gram-negative bacteria that causes stomach ulcers and is associated with stomach cancer is what?

Helicobacter pylori

70
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Why is E.coli 0157:H7 so virulent?

Produces an enterotoxin that causes hemorrhagic diarrhea, kidney failure, death.

71
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What genus of bacteria cause gonorrhea and meningitis?

Neisseria (N. gonorrhea and N. miningitides)

72
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What gram-negative bacteria can cause meningitis, pneumonia and earaches and is now preventable with vaccination?

Haemophilus influenzae type B

73
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Gram-negative bacteria that do not spread disease but perform photosynthesis and are essential for the environment are?

cyanobacteria

74
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What types of infections is Pseudomonas aeroginosa associated with?

Noscomial and of burn wounds & urinary tract infections.

75
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The preventable infection whooping cough is caused by what?

Bordetella pertussis

76
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What is the gram-negative bacteria that causes foodborne illness and is associated with poulty, turtles, reptiles, snakes?

Salmonella

77
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This foodborne pathogen is also normal flora of our digestive tract.

E. coli

78
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What does the gram-positive bacteria Strept. pyogenes cause?

Strept throat, rheumatic fever, glomerular nephritis and necrotizing fascitis

79
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Yersinia pestis is spread by fleas on rats and causes what disease?

Bubonic plague

80
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Rickettsia rickettsii causes what illness?

Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

81
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The slide agglutination test involves looking for what in the specimen?

The presence of antigens

82
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How is DNA fingerprinting used today in clinical settings?

paternity testing, ID source of infection & determine relatedness of organisms

83
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Define antigen.

Proteins that coat all cell types, every cell type has unique antigens. Anything that elicits antibody production.

84
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A series of questions with yes or no answers, with each answer directing the path to the next question, eventually ending with the identfication of an unknown specimen is called what?

dichotomous key

85
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What are proteins that are produced by the immune system to bind to and inactivate specific antigens?

antibodies

86
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Provide 2 examples of how the Western blot is used clinically for diagnosis.

confirmation of HIV infection, diagnosis of Lyme disease

87
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What macromolecule is amplified in PCR?

DNA

88
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What macromolecule is separated by size on a gel when a Western blot is performed?

proteins are separated

89
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Provide 2 examples of how the ELISA is used in a clinical setting.

Strep test (strep throat) and HIV diagnosis

90
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What determines if a DNA probe will bind to another nucleotide strand?

complementarity of the DNA sequences

91
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The enterotube and API strips are examples of what kind of testing?

Biochemical testing

92
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What does PCR stand for?

polymerase chain reaction

93
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Direct serological testing detects the presence of ?

antigens

94
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DNA fingerprinting uses what type of enzyme?

restriction enzymes (they cleave DNA at specific sequences)

95
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Indirect serological testing detects the presence of ?

antibodies

96
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What does ELISA stand for?

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

97
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Serological testing involves looking for the presence of one of two different things. What are those things?

antigens or antibodies

98
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Types of serological testing

Elisa,agglutination,western blot

99
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Types of molecular testing

DNA probes,PCR,DNA fingerprinting

100
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This examination identifies cell type, cell shape,arrangement,gram reaction and cell structure

Microscopic examination

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