RMA Exam Study

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Last updated 12:48 AM on 5/28/26
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105 Terms

1
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What is the primary role of an RMA in managing patient records?

To maintain and update patient records while ensuring confidentiality

2
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What is the purpose of HIPAA in healthcare administrative procedures?

To ensure patient health information is kept confidential and secure

3
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Which of the following is an example of a non-clinical administrative task performed by an RMA?

Managing appointment schedules and patient intake forms

4
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What is the role of an RMA in handling medical billing and coding?

To prepare and submit insurance claims using correct billing codes

5
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Which of the following is a responsibility of an RMA when managing medical office supplies?

To ensure all office supplies are readily available and within budget

6
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What is the main purpose of maintaining patient confidentiality in administrative roles?

To protect patient privacy and comply with legal and ethical standards

7
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How should an RMA manage a patient’s medical records according to legal guidelines?

Storing medical records in a secure and organized manner and with limited access

8
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Which of the following is an important aspect of communication for an RMA in a medical office?

Listening actively, communicating clearly, and relaying accurate information

9
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What should an RMA do if a patient inquires about their test results?

Direct the patient to the physician or appropriate healthcare provider

10
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Which filing system arranges records by number rather than alphabetically?

Numeric filing

11
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When answering a medical office telephone, what should the medical assistant do first?

Identify the office and herself/himself by name

12
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Which of the following best describes a tickler file?

A chronological reminder system for future tasks

13
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A patient requests a copy of their medical records. Under HIPAA, the covered entity must respond within how many days?

30 days

14
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Which type of appointment scheduling reserves specific time slots for certain types of visits (ex: physicals only in the morning)

Cluster scheduling

15
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When proofreading a business letter, which error type involves incorrect word usage rather than spelling (ex: “their vs there”

Homophone error

16
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Which form is used to physicians to report a patient’s diagnosis and procedures to an insurance company for reimbursement?

CMS-1500

17
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In the context of medical records, what does ‘SOAP’ stand for?

Subjective

Objective

Assessment

Plan

18
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Which of the following is not a standard element of a professional business letter formatted in full-block style?

Indented paragraphs

19
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A patient’s account has been sent to a collection agency. Under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA), which action is prohibited for the collection agency?

Calling the debtor’s place of employment after being told not to

20
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Which scheduling method is best suited for a very busy practice that wants to minimize gaps while accommodating varying appointment lengths?

Stream (time slot) scheduling

21
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What is the purpose of a charge ticket (also called an encounter form or superbill) in a medical office?

To capture diagnosis and procedures codes for billing at the point of care

22
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When performing a 12-lead ECG, which electrode is placed on the right leg?

RL(reference/ground electrode)

23
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Which position places the patient flat on their back with legs elevated in stirrup, used primarily for gyno examinations?

Lithotomy position

24
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A patient’s blood pressure is measured at 148/94 mm Hg on 2 separate visits.

According to current guidelines, this would be classified as:

Stage 2 hypertension

25
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When assisting with a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant accidentally touches the sterile field with an ungloved hand

What is the correct action?

Inform the physician and set up a new sterile field

26
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Which of the following is the correct site for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection in an adult when a large muscle volume is needed and the deltoid is contraindicated?

Ventrogluteal (lateral hip)

27
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During a urinary catheterization procedure, after the catheter is inserted and urine begins to flow, what is the next step?

Advance the catheter 1-2 inches further before inflating the balloon

28
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Which of the following is the correct technique for measuring an infant’s rectal temp?

Lubricate and insert the thermometer no more than 1 inch (2.5 cm)

29
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When documenting a wound as 3 cm by 2 cm with irregular edges, pink granulation tissue, and minimal serious drainage, which wound healing phase does this most likely represent?

Proliferation phase

30
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A physician orders a ‘wet prep’ (wet mounts) vaginal specimen

Which microscopic finding would indicate bacterial vaginosis?

Clue cells (epithelial cells covered with bacteria)

31
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During spirometry (pulmonary function testing), the patient exhales as hard and fast as possible after a maximal inhalation.

Which value measures the total air exhaled in the first second?

FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)

32
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Which of the following describes the correct technique for applying an arm sling to a patient with a suspected forearm fracture?

The elbow should be at a 90 degree angle with hand elevated slightly above the elbow

33
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When performing a visual acuity test using a Snellen chart, a patient reads the 20/40 pine but not the 20/30 line

How is this documented and what does it mean?

20/40 vision; the patient sees at 20 feet what a normal eye sees at 40 feet

34
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Which anticoagulant additive is found in the lavender (purple) top blood collection tube and is the standard choice for CBC testing?

EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)

35
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A urine dipstick test shows positive nitrite and positive leukocyte esterase

What do these findings most strongly suggest?

Urinary tract infection

36
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A point of care glucose meter reads “HI” for a patient’s blood glucose

What does this result mean and what action should the medical assistant take?

The glucose exceeds the meter’s upper measurement limit; report the result to the provider immediately

37
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Which of the following is the correct procedure for collecting a throat culture specimen?

Depress the tongue and swab the posterior pharynx and tonsillar area

38
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When performing a capillary blood collection (finger stick), which finger is preferred and what is the correct puncture site?

Ring finger, lateral aspect of the fingertip (avoiding the center)

39
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A patient’s fasting lipid panel shows total cholesterol 220 mg/dL, LDL 145 mg/dL, HDL 38 mg/dL, and triglycerides 185 mg/dL

Which single finding is MOST concerning for cardiovascular risk?

HDL of 38 mg/dL

40
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Which type of microscope uses ultraviolet light and fluorescent dyes to make specific organisms or cellular components glow brightly against a dark background?

Fluorescence microscopy

41
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A reagent strip used for urine testing shows a color change indication protein in the urine

Which medical term describes the presence of abnormal amounts of protein in urine?

Proteinuria

42
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When centrifuging a urine sample for microscopic examination, which layer is examined and how is it prepared?

The supernatant is removed, the pellet is re suspended in residual urine, and a drop is placed on a slide

43
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Which fasting blood glucose level is used by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) to define a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

Fasting glucose of less than 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions

44
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A provider orders a “‘‘type and screen’ for a pre operative patient

What does this test determine?

ABO blood type, Rh factor, and presence of unexpected antibodies

45
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Which quality control (QC) action must be performed when a new bottle of urine dipstick reagent strips is opened?

Run both normal and abnormal controls on the new strips before using for patient testing

46
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Which of the following is the highest level of microbial destruction on the Spaulding classification scale?

Sterilization

47
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When performing hand hygiene before a clean procedure, how long should alcohol based hand rub be rubbed on the hands?

Until the hands feel dry (approximately 20-30 seconds)

48
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A healthcare worker sustains a needle stick injury from a needle used on a patient with known HIV infection

What is the first action the medical assistant should take?

Was the wound thoroughly with soap and water

49
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Which transmission based precaution category applies to a patient diagnosed with influenza?

Droplet precautions

50
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When disposing of a used scalpel blade, which action is correct per OSHA blood borne pathogen standards?

Use forceps or a blade remover to transfer directly into a sharps container without recapping

51
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Which type of isolation requires the patient’s room to have negative air pressure relative to the hallway?

Airborne infection isolation (AII)

52
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An autoclave sterilization cycle for wrapped surgical instruments is set at 121 degrees Celsius (250 degrees Fahrenheit)

What is the minimum exposure time required at this temp?

15 minutes

53
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Which OSHA standard requires employers to provide Hepatitis B vaccination to employees with occupational exposure to blood borne pathogens

OSHA Blood Borne Pathogen Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)

54
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Which of the following best describes the chain of infection and which link, if broken, would MOST efficiently prevent healthcare associated infections?

Pathogen, reservoir, portal of exit, transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host; breaking the transmission link through hand hygiene

55
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Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) item is required FIRST when donning (putting on) PPE before entering an isolation room?

Gown

56
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A medical assistant prepared to perform a venipuncture. After cleansing the site with 70% isopropyl alcohol, how long should the site be allowed to dry before the needle is inserted?

30-60 seconds

57
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Which of the following infectious diseases requires BOTH airborne and contact precautions simultaneously?

Varicella (chickenpox)

58
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A physician examines a patient and determines that the diagnosis is terminal cancer.

The patient’s family asks the physician not to tell the patient.

What ethical principle supports the physician’s obligation to inform the patient?

Autonomy

59
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Which of the following actions by a medical assistant would constitute a breach of patient confidentiality under HIPAA?

Mentioning a patient’s name and diagnosis in a conversation with a friend outside of work

60
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A minor presents to the clinic requesting treatment for a sexually transmitted infection.

In most states, which legal doctrine allows a medical assistant and provider to treat this patient without parental consent?

The mature minor doctrine/statutory exception

61
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Which type of advance directive specifically designates a person to make healthcare decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated?

Healthcare proxy/durable power of attorney for healthcare

62
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Which of the following best defines the term ‘respondeat superior’ in the context of medical practice?

An employer is legally responsible for the negligent acts of employees performed within the scope of employment

63
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A patient’s family member calls and asks for information about the patient’s test results.

The patient is an adult and has not signed a release.

What should the medical assistant do?

Decline to confirm or deny any patient information and advise them to have the patient contact the office

64
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When a physician documents ‘objective’ findings in a SOAP note, which of the following would be considered an objective finding?

Lung auscultation reveals bilateral crackles; temperature 38.6 degrees celcius

65
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Which federal act establishes patients’ rights to access their medical records, request amendments, and receive an accounting of disclosures?

HIPAA Privacy Rule

66
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What is the statue of limitations and why is it important in medical malpractice cases?

The time period within which a plaintiff must file a lawsuit after an injury occurs

67
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A physician delegates a task to a medical assistant that is outside the medical assistant’s training and scope of practice.

If the patient is harmed, which legal concept holds the physician primarily responsible?

Negligent delegation

68
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Which type of consent is typically documented when a patient agrees to have blood drawn for routine lab work?

Implied consent

69
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Which federal agency enforces HIPAA privacy and security compliance and investigates complaints against covered entities?

Office for Civil Rights (OCR), within HHS

70
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Which of the following best defines ‘petty cash’ management in a medical office?

A small reserve of cash for minor everyday office expenses that are impractical to pay by check

71
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A medical assistant is opening mail and finds a check made out to the practice.

What should she do with the check before recording it?

Restrictively endorse it for ‘Deposit Only’ with the practice account number

72
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Which of the following best describes an ‘explanation of benefits’ (EOB) form sent by an insurance company?

A document explaining what services were billed, what the insurer paid, and any amount remaining as patient responsibility

73
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When scheduling a new patient appointment, which of the following pieces of information is MOST important to obtain first?

The reason for the visit and the urgency of the concern

74
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Which filing method is MOST appropriate for a large practice that wants to distribute filing workload evenly and prevent one section of the files from becoming overcrowded?

Terminal digit (reverse numeric) filing

75
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A medical assistant answers the phone and a caller identifies himself as a physician at the local hospital asking for a patient’s complete records to be faxed immediately for emergency care.

What should the medical assistant do?

Verify the request through a callback to the hospital’s main number and confirm the receiving fax number is secure before transmitting

76
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Which coding system is used to report diagnosis on insurance claims in the United States?

ICD-10-CM

77
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A medical office uses a ‘day sheet’ as part of its financial management.

What is the primary purpose of a day sheet?

To track all financial transactions for the day including charges, payments, and adjustments

78
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Which of the following is an example of an internal emergency plan element required in a medical office?

Designated escape routes, assembly points, and staff roles in emergency situations

79
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When a patient calls to cancel an appointment, what documentation should the medical assistant enter in the patient’s record?

The date and time of the cancellation call, who called, and the reason given (if provided)

80
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A physician asks the medical assistant to mail a reminder letter to patients who are due for their annual mammogram.

Under HIPAA, this communication is classified as:

A treatment reminder that is a routine healthcare operation not requiring special authorization

81
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Which of the following is true about the ‘accounts receivable’ in a medical practice?

It is the total amount of money owed to the practice for services already rendered

82
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Which prefix means ‘within’ or ‘inside’?

Intra-

83
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The medical term ‘tachycardia’ is constructed from which components, and what does it mean?

Tachy- (fast) and cardia (heart) equals fast heart rate

84
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Which suffix means ‘surgical removal of’ (excision)?

-ectomy

85
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What does the abbreviation ‘NPO’ stand for and when is is used?

Nothing Per Os (by mouth) - used when a patient must abstain from all food and fluids

86
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The root word ‘hepat/o' refers to which organ?

Liver

87
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Which combining form refers to the urinary bladder?

Cyst/o

88
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The term ‘dyspnea’ describes which clinical finding?

Difficulty or painful breathing

89
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What does the prefix ‘hemi-’ mean in medical terminology?

Half

90
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The suffix ‘-itis’ means inflammation.

Which of the following correctly identifies the term for inflammation of the appendix?

Appendicitis

91
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Which anatomical plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) halves?

Transverse (horizontal) plane

92
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The abbreviation ‘HEENT’ appears in a physical exam documentation.

What does HEENT stand for?

Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat

93
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The term ‘subcutaneous’ describes medication or injections administered into which tissue layer?

Into the layer between the skin (dermis) and the muscle (hypodermis/fatty tissue)

94
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A patient in the waiting room suddenly loses consciousness and collapses.

What is the FIRST action the medical assistant should take?

Assess responsiveness by tapping the patient’s shoulder and calling their name

95
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Which of the following is an example of a ‘never event’ in healthcare as defined by the National Quality Forum (NQF)?

Surgery performed on the wrong patient or wrong body part

96
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A patient is being prepared for a procedure requiring contrast dye.

Which patient history finding is MOST important to report to the physician BEFORE the procedure?

History of shellfish or iodine allergy

97
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When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to an examination table, which of the following principles should guide the medical assistant’s technique?

Use the patient’s strong side as the pivot side; stand on the patient’s weak side for support

98
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A patient reports they are allergic to penicillin.

Which other class of antibiotics has a known cross-reactivity risk due to a shared beta-lactam ring structure?

Cephalosporins (cephalexin)

99
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Which of the following describes the purpose of the ‘fall risk assessment’ performed on patients in clinical settings?

To evaluate a patient’s risk of falling using validated criteria so that preventive interventions can be implemented

100
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When applying a topical medication, which of the following correctly describes the process for removing the previous dose of a trans dermal patch?

Remove the old patch, clean the skin, and rotate to a new site before applying the new patch