patho pharm weekly quiz 1&2

White Blood Cell: Neutrophil

First responders to bacterial and fungal infections

White Blood Cell: Natural Killer Cell

Detect and Destroy abnormal cells, such as tumor cells,Without Needing prior sensitization

White blood cell: B Lymphocytes

Produce antibodies that specifically target pathogens

White blood cell: Helper T Lymphocytes

Coordinate the immune response

A nurse is trying to describe the role of the innate immune system in fighting infections to a novice nurse. Please select all of the roles that apply to the innate immune system. SATA

  

A. Secretions such as saliva and stomach acid contain enzymes that can neutralize harmful microorganisms.

B. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies to viruses.

C. Macrophages and neutrophils engulf and digest pathogens, effectively removing them from the body.

D. The skin provides a physical barrier to disease entry.

 

A. Secretions such as saliva and stomach acid contain enzymes that can neutralize harmful microorganisms.

C. Macrophages and neutrophils engulf and digest pathogens, effectively removing them from the body.

D. The skin provides a physical barrier to disease entry.

A nurse is assessing a client with suspected acute skin inflammation. Which of the following is an example of a symptom of infection? 

  

A. Vital signs reveal a low grade fever.

B. The nurse notices localized redness and warmth at the site of a recent bug bite.

C. The client reports pain at the site of a recent insect bite.

D. The nurse sees purulent drainage coming from the insect bite.

C. The client reports pain at the site of a recent insect bite.

A client is diagnosed with a condition in which the brain cells cannot withstand low oxygen delivery long enough for cell-reversible changes to happen. Which condition is the client exhibiting?

A. Organelle disruption

B. Hypercoagulation

C. Ischemia

D. Hypoxia

D. Hypoxia

A genetically programmed cell death is a process that can destroy cells that are no longer needed. Which term applies to this biological process?

  

Atrophy

Hypertrophy

Neoplasia

Apoptosis

Apoptosis

Match the physiologic responses to the nervous system (Parasympathetic vs sympathetic).

Slows heart beat  

Accelerates heart beat     

Constricts bronchi        

Dilates bronchi

Stimulates bile release from liver    

Stimulates glucose release from liver  

Slows heart beat  Parasympathetic           

Accelerates heart beat Sympathetic           

Constricts bronchi Parasympathetic           

Dilates bronchi Sympathetic           

Stimulates bile release from liver Parasympathetic           

Stimulates glucose release from liver Sympathetic           

A person with asthma has been experiencing an acute worsening of their symptoms. They are having an asthma attack. This is considered which of the following terms?

Remission

Prognosis

Insidious

Exacerbation

 Exacerbation

The nurse is reviewing a patient's history and notes that they have a history of diabetes mellitus type II, hypertension (high blood pressure), atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. This is an example of which of the following?

 Multiple complications

Multiple mortalities

Multiple prognoses

Multiple co-morbidities

Multiple co-morbidities

dentify whether the issue is a sign (objective) or a symptom (subjective) of a disease. 

Fast heart rate

Chest pain 

Fever

Blisters 

Fatigue

Fast heart rate Sign           

Chest pain Symptom           

Fever Sign           

Blisters Sign           

Fatigue Symptom   

A nurse is collecting family history data for a genetic pedigree for a patient for hemophilia. The nurse is educating the patient on how hemophilia passes down genetically from one generation to the next. Which of the following statements best explains who in a family will exhibit signs and symptoms of hemophilia? 

Hemophilia is a dominant gene so anyone with the gene will have hemophilia.

Hemophilia is an x-linked disorder which means only sons with the gene have hemophilia.

Hemophilia is a recessive gene so anyone with two copies of the gene will have hemophilia.

Hemophilia is a y-linked disorder which means only sons with the gene have hemophilia.

Hemophilia is an x-linked disorder which means only sons with the gene have hemophilia.

The onset of a medication refers to:

The length of time the drug remains effective

The time it takes for the drug to reach its highest concentration in the blood

The time it takes for the drug to reach its intended effect

The lowest concentration of the drug in the blood

The time it takes for the drug to reach its intended effect

Which of the following are reasons for checking both peak and trough levels for aminoglycoside antibiotics? (Select all that apply.)

 To adjust dosing

To determine liver function

To ensure the drug is effective

To determine allergies to the drug

To monitor for toxicity

 To adjust dosing

To ensure the drug is effective

To monitor for toxicity

Which of the following are components of pharmacokinetics? (Select all that apply.)

Distribution

Absorption

Metabolism

Potentiation

Excretion 

Distribution

Absorption

Metabolism

Excretion 

Impaired liver function most commonly affects which pharmacokinetic process?

Metabolism

Distribution

Absorption

Excretion

Metabolism

What is a primary concern when administering opioid pain medications?

Respiratory depression

Infection

Hyperglycemia

Hypertension

Respiratory depression

Why is it important for a patient to finish their entire course of antibiotics? SATA

To decrease risk of antibiotic resistance

To ensure the infection is fully treated

To prevent reinfection

To decrease the risk of comorbidities

To prevent allergic reactions

To decrease risk of antibiotic resistance

To ensure the infection is fully treated

Question 17

1 / 1 pts

Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs compared to brand-name drugs?

  

Generic over-the-counter drugs contain the same active ingredients as brand-name OTC drugs.

Over-the-counter drugs are always less effective than brand-name drugs.

Over-the-counter drugs are safer than prescription drugs

Brand-name drugs can only be purchased with a prescription.

ALL FALSE

Which statement best describes why lifespan considerations are important when administering medications?

Medication effects do not change throughout the lifespan.

All patients, regardless of age, metabolize drugs at the same rate.

Infants and older adults often require lower doses due to differences in drug absorption, metabolism, and excretion.

Adolescents always require higher doses than adults.

Infants and older adults often require lower doses due to differences in drug absorption, metabolism, and excretion.

Which statement is TRUE about non-opioid pain medications? 

All non-opioid pain medications cause sedation and respiratory depression.

Non-opioid medications are only effective for severe pain.

Non-opioid medications such as acetaminophen and ibuprofen are commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief.

Non-opioid medications include morphine and fentanyl.

Non-opioid medications such as acetaminophen and ibuprofen are commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief.

Which statement best explains the difference between antibiotic sensitivity and resistance?  

Sensitivity means bacteria are killed or inhibited by an antibiotic; resistance means bacteria are not affected by that antibiotic.

Sensitivity means only viruses respond to the antibiotic; resistance means only fungi respond.

Sensitivity means the antibiotic causes side effects; resistance means the patient can tolerate the antibiotic.

Sensitivity means the bacteria cause a stronger infection; resistance means there is no infection.

Sensitivity means bacteria are killed or inhibited by an antibiotic; resistance means bacteria are not affected by that antibiotic.

A nurse is documenting that the patient coughed up sputum. Which term refers to the process of coughing up sputum?

expectoration

atelectasis

hypoxia

hemoptysis

expectoration

A nurse is trying to explain how the pathophysiology of infectious respiratory disorders can vary. Which unique respiratory infection is caused by a resilient bacterial organism that can remain dormant in the body?

Group of answer choices

Tuberculosis

Influenza

COVID-19

Pneumonia

Tuberculosis

Match the respiratory signs/symptoms to the disease.

Group of answer choices

Wheezing

           [ Choose ]             COPD             Tuberculosis             Asthma             Pneumonia         

Hypoxemia and hypercapnea

           [ Choose ]             COPD             Tuberculosis             Asthma             Pneumonia         

Hemoptysis

           [ Choose ]             COPD             Tuberculosis             Asthma             Pneumonia         

Crackles

           [ Choose ]             COPD             Tuberculosis             Asthma             Pneumonia         

A nurse is explaining to a student nurse what happens when ventilation and perfusion are impaired in pneumonia. Which of the following statements best describes how the pathophysiology of pneumonia results in hypoxemia?

Group of answer choices

"Smoking irritates the lining of the bronchi causing increased mucous production."

"Elastase erodes the walls between alveoli including capillary beds."

"Circulation is impaired and the patient is not perfusing their lungs."

"Fluid and mucous in the alveoli prevent oxygen from reaching the capillary beds."

"Fluid and mucous in the alveoli prevent oxygen from reaching the capillary beds."

Which adverse effect is most closely associated with the use of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?

Group of answer choices

Ototoxicity

Bradycardia

Dry cough

Hyperglycemia

Dry cough

Match the respiratory related assessments/tests to what each measures:

Group of answer choices

Sputum culture and sensitivity

           [ Choose ]             Oxygen saturation in the blood stream             Amount of air a person can exhale during a forced breath             Identifies organism(s) and which antibiotics can treat the organism(s)             Carbon dioxide that is breathed out         

Forced expiratory Volume 1 (FEV1)

           [ Choose ]             Oxygen saturation in the blood stream             Amount of air a person can exhale during a forced breath             Identifies organism(s) and which antibiotics can treat the organism(s)             Carbon dioxide that is breathed out         

Pulse oximeter

           [ Choose ]             Oxygen saturation in the blood stream             Amount of air a person can exhale during a forced breath             Identifies organism(s) and which antibiotics can treat the organism(s)             Carbon dioxide that is breathed out         

Capnography

           [ Choose ]             Oxygen saturation in the blood stream             Amount of air a person can exhale during a forced breath             Identifies organism(s) and which antibiotics can treat the organism(s)             Carbon dioxide that is breathed out         

A patient has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix, loop diuretic). What electrolyte imbalance should you monitor for most closely?

Group of answer choices

Hypercalcemia

Hypernatremia

Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia

Hypokalemia

Which statement about beta blockers, such as metoprolol, is correct?

Group of answer choices

They act as vasoconstrictors

They decrease peripheral resistance in blood vessels

They increase contractile force of the heart

They increase heart rate

They decrease peripheral resistance in blood vessels

Which statement best differentiates cardiac afterload from cardiac preload?

Group of answer choices

Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects cardiac output.

Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that enters the right atrium.

Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole.

Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome.

Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome.

The registered nurse is reviewing information with coronary staff nurses about the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS). Which statement made by an attending nurse indicates understanding?

Group of answer choices

“RAAS is a mechanism that decreases blood pressure.”

“RAAS is a mechanism with detrimental effects that decrease workload for the left ventricle.”

“RAAS is a mechanism that regulates arterial blood pressure.”

“RAAS is a mechanism that increases blood volume in response to increased renal perfusion.”

“RAAS is a mechanism with detrimental effects that decrease workload for the left ventricle.”

Match the valve to the physiologic location in the heart.

Tricuspid valve: Located between the right atrium and right ventricle   

Pulmonic valve: Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery

Mitral valve: Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle       

Aortic valve: Located between the left ventricle and the aorta 

Tricuspid valve: Located between the right atrium and right ventricle   

Pulmonic valve: Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery

Mitral valve: Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle       

Aortic valve: Located between the left ventricle and the aorta 

The registered nurse is reviewing cardiac output with nursing staff. Which statement by a student nurse indicates understanding?

Group of answer choices

“Cardiac output is increased in heart failure.”

“Cardiac output is the amount of blood that the heart pumps out of the left ventricle.”

“Adrenergic stimulation slows heart rate, and cholinergic stimulation raises heart rate.”

“Cardiac output is unvaried by body size.”

“Cardiac output is the amount of blood that the heart pumps out of the left ventricle.”

A nurse is monitoring a patient with a faulty aortic valve which is disrupting normal blood flow through the heart. Which of the following is likely to occur if the aortic valve is failing? (Select all that apply)

Hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

A murmur would be present.

Fatigue and dyspnea on exertion would be present.

Hypertrophy of the right atrium.

Hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

A murmur would be present.

Fatigue and dyspnea on exertion would be present.

A patient with a new prescription for cromolyn asks about the medication. What statements by the nurse correctly indicate its benefits? (Select all that apply)

Because this drug helps block inflammation mediators such as histamine while keeping your white blood cells from attacking foreign allergy cells

Because it's a great bronchodilator

It is one of the safest anti-asthma drugs available

Because these tend to be cheaper with your insurance

It acts like an anti-inflammatory drug such as a glucocorticoid, but without a lot of the disruptive side-effects

It is one of the safest anti-asthma drugs available

Match the prototype drug to its class:

Diphenhydramine

Albuterol

Guaifenesin       

Beclomethasone

Diphenhydramine-First-generation antihistamine      

Albuterol-Beta2-adrenergic agonist         

Guaifenesin- Expectorant                     

Beclomethasone-Inhaled corticosteroid

What patient teaching is MOST important for a patient prescribed beclomethasone for asthma?

Group of answer choices

Immediately stop the drug if a cough develops

Take the drug only when you feel short of breath

Take it with food to prevent GI upset

Monitor for yeast infections in the mouth

Monitor for yeast infections in the mouth

Which drug works by blocking aldosterone, resulting in sodium excretion and potassium retention?

Group of answer choices

Gemfibrozil

Atenolol

Spironolactone

Nifedipine

Spironolactone

What is a potential side effect of sympathomimetics like oxymetazoline?

Group of answer choices

Hyperkalemia

Yellow vision

Drowsiness

Rebound nasal congestion

Rebound nasal congestion

What common side effect should be discussed with a patient starting a statin, such as atorvastatin?

Group of answer choices

Dry mouth

Sore throat

Cough

Rash and headache

Rash and headache

Which medication is best described as a long-term management drug that relaxes smooth muscles of the bronchi but requires testing for therapeutic levels due to risk of toxicity?

Group of answer choices

Montelukast

Ipratropium

Theophylline

Codeine

Theophylline