Animal Diseases and Control Final Quiz

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174 Terms

1
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What is zoonosis?

a disease of animals that may be transmitted to humans under certain able conditions

2
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What are the root causes of disease?

infectious, neoplastic, metabolic, degenerative, toxic, inflammatory, developmental, congenital, nutritional

3
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What classifies as infectious?

the invasion and multiplication of microbes as bacteria or virus

4
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What classifies as neoplastic?

cancer characterized by abnormal uncontrolled growth of tissues

5
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What classifies as metabolic?

physical/chemical processes which the body cells are maintained and energy made available

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What classifies as degenerative?

change from a increase to decrease form, degeneration of normal body structure

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What classifies as toxic?

substance taken in or produced inside the body that attack a very specific organ

8
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What classifies as inflammatory?

body immune system turning on itself

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What classifies as developmental?

normal development is arrested, sped up or altered

10
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What classifies as congenital?

abnormal fetal development resulting in animals born with congenital defects

11
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What classifies as nutritional?

production disease, metabolic and other problems that can happen in animals as a function of how we push them to produce

12
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What is the iceberg concept?

clinical disease will be evident is some but not all animals (sub clinically infected ones)

13
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What is the difference between clinical sign and symptom?

clinical sign: observed

symptom, experienced by patient

14
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How do you calculate the prevalence?

proportion of animals that are affected by a given condition

#existing cases/ #animals at risk

15
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How do you calculate incidence rate?

the proportion of animals that develop a case of disease over a specific time frame

#of new cases over time/ #animals at risk

16
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What increases or decreases prevalence rate?

increase duration= increase prevalence, decrease duration = decrease prevalence

17
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What changes incidence rate?

slowing down developmental of new cases and vice versa

18
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What makes up the epidemiologic triad?

agent, host or the environment

19
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What is the intrinsic host factors?

attributes we cannot change (age, gender, species, genetic makeup, innate immune system)

20
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What are extrinsic host factors?

attributes that can be influenced by us or the animal itself (repro/ vaccination status, previous exposure, behavior, production, environmental)

21
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What are some example of environmental extrinsic factors?

stocking density, movement between groups, housing factors, weather conditions, nutrition

22
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What is necessary cause?

the presence of an agent, you cannot have a disease without the agent itself

23
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When is an animal considered infected?

When the agent enters the host

24
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What are the six different drug classes?

cillin, mycin (macrolides, aminoglycosides), Cephalosporin, Fluroquinolone, Sulfa, cycline

25
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What drugs are in the cillin class?

penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin

26
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What drugs are in the cephalosporin class?

ceftiofur, cepharirin, cephalexin

27
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What drugs are in the fluoroquinolone class?

enrofloxacin, danofloxacin

28
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What drugs are in the cycline class?

oxytetracycline, chlortetacycline

29
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What drugs classify as macrolides (mycin) class?

tylosin, tilmicosin, tulathromycin, gamithromysin, tildipirosin

30
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What drugs classify as aminoglycosides (mycin) class?

gentamicin, amikan (not used in food animals)

31
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What modes of actions are bactericidal (kill)?

Cell wall, cell membrane, nucleic acid synthesis

32
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What modes of action are bacteriostatic (inhibit)?

Protein synthesis, enzyme and metabolic pathways

33
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What are the practical consideration for antibiotic use on operations?

therapeutic treatment, control, prevention

34
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What is metaphylaxis?

mass medication of a group of incoming animals in order to treat clinically ill animals and control and prevent subclinical (costly)

35
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What are ionophores?

antibiotics because they influence the growth of bacteria in the rumen (favors gram + )

36
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What is intramuscular injections?

enters the bloodstream quickly

37
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What is subcutaneous injection?

slow release from depot of injection site to the blood stream

38
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What are intravenous injection?

fastest way into the animals bloodstream but hard to administer

39
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How are antibiotics in milk monitored?

all milk shipments are tested for at least on type of antibiotic upon their delivery to milk processors

40
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How are antibiotics in meat monitored?

not every animal is tested

criteria: random sampling, targeted, importation of meats

41
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What is VFD?

Veterinary feed directive, feed grade medications that needs vet approval before it can be purchased and used in animal feed

42
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What is VCPR?

Veterinary client patient relationship

43
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What are the elements of VCPR?

vet

  • assumes responsibility for medical judgements about animals & client agreed

  • Knows the animals to make a preliminary diagnosis (examined/ recently saw animals, personal knowledge, timely visits, available for follow- up questions)

44
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What is one downfall of the VCPR elements?

there is no definitive time frame the vet has to visit the operation

45
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What are the requirements to have a VCPR?

when prescription drugs, otc & precription used in extra labeled manner or VFD drugs used in animal feed

46
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What is considered as extra labeled drug use?

any situation where the actual use of the drug differs in a way from the direction of the product label

47
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What program of antibiotic free is stricter to follow?

organic program

48
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What is the details of the Never-ever beef programs?

don’t use of antibiotics, extraneous hormones, coccidiostats or ionophores

49
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What are the main points for antibiotic resistance?

anytime antibiotics are used resistant bacteria can appear, some bacteria are naturally resistant to some bacteria, resistance does not equal virulence, both humans and livestock producers are irresponsible, possible some cells to merge with others and pass on their resistance

50
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What is signalment?

listing animals characteristics specifically the age, sex, species and breed

51
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What are the four characteristics of a clinical diagnosis?

signalment, history, physical diagnosis, lab results

52
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What’s are included in the respiratory tract for diagnostic testing?

A: nasal, pharyngeal, transtracheal, bronchoalveolar, oral fluids

P: lung tissue, respiratory lymph nodes

53
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What’s included in the digestive tract for diagnostic test?

A: feces, oral fluid

P: stomach contents, digestive organs, mesenteric lymph nodes

54
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What’s included in the reproductive tract for diagnostic test?

A: sheath scraping, vaginal washes, biopsies

P: Repro organs, fetuses

55
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What’s included in the nervous system for diagnostic testing?

A: cerebrospinal fluid

P: brain and spinal cord

56
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What’s included in the systemic disease for diagnostic testing?

A: everything plus blood and serum

P: complete set of internal organs

57
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What is the polymerase chain reaction?

most frequently used, amplifies short portion of a strand of DNA/RNA, specific and sensitive (detect low number of agents)

58
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What are the disadvantages of PCR testing?

expensive, do not uncover unknown or unexpected agents, no differentiation of live or dead organisms

59
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How do you read PCR tests?

the lower the cycle count= higher level of nucleic acid and vice versa

60
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What are 5 different transmission routes?

aerosol, oral, direct contact, fomite (inanimate) transmission, vector transmission (biological (multiples) or mechanical (does not multiply)

61
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What is horizontal transmission?

spread of disease from animal to animal

62
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What is vertical transmission?

spread of disease through intercourse or through the placenta to the fetus

63
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What are the three effective contacts that can prevent transmission?

physical separation, minimize contact time, minimize dose load

64
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What is the order that farmers should take care of their animals?

youngest → older → sick

65
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What are some strategies of biocontainment?

all in all out (no introduction of new animals), early removal, sandhills calving system (purposefully moving animals to new pasture to calve), herd closure, depopulation/repopulation, partial depopulation, isolation

66
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What is the process of cleaning?

remove OM, wash, disinfectant, drying time

67
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What are some beneficial characteristics to properly disinfect animal facility?

adding antifreeze during cold temps, allow surfaces to dry completely, extend period of time on surfaces

68
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What is biosecurity?

interventions that prevent the introduction of infectious disease agents to specified population

69
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What are the types of introduction of infectious diseases?

entry of new animals, animal of neighboring herds, people, outside vehicle traffic, feedstuff & H2O supply

70
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What entry of animals are at the risk?

replacements, lactating animals through farms, fosters, semen/embryos, returning from shows

71
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What are the sufficient isolation period for new animals entering?

30-60 days

72
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What is downtime?

time elapsed since the workers has had contact with animals

73
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What are personal entry biosecurity?

shower in- shower out, Danish entry (bench barrier), changing area/boot bath

74
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What is the downside of booth baths?

unless if all organic matter is removed before using it will be ineffective

75
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What is a perimeter buffer area?

represents area of the farm where worker and animal movement takes place

76
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What is immunity?

resistance to the invasive or pathogenic effects of foreign microorganisms or to the toxic effects of antigenic substances

77
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What is innate immunity?

non-specific to the kind of germ regardless of cause/ source of injury

78
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What are physical/ chemical barriers of innate immunity?

skin mucous membranes, respiratory tract, immune chemicals (cytokines, prostaglandins), neutrophils & macrophages, fever, inflammation

79
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What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

redness (rubor), swelling (tumor), heat (calor), pain (dolar), loss of function

80
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What may disrupt mucous membrane?

dehydration, killing of normal flora, gutstatis

81
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What may disrupt the respiratory tract?

dehydration, dust (decrease effectiveness of cilia), acidosis, stress

82
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What may disrupt the skin?

wounds, persistent moisture

83
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What hormone is suppressed during chronic inflammation?

cortisol

84
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What is active immunity?

activated in response to a specific antigen

85
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What are the types of active immunity?

Humoral: active in body humors (blood and lymph) with antibodies

Cell- Mediated: identify and destroy cells abnormal or infected body cells

86
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What is colostrum?

the first secretion released from the udder after birth and continues for 2-3 days

87
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When does colostrum start being made from the mother?

5 weeks before

88
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When should colostrum be fed to the calf?

no later than 24 hours otherwise it will not be able to absorb the immunoglobins

89
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Who will have a higher level of colostrum in the bloodstream?

higher in cow’s vs new heifers

90
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What should be the amount of immunoglobins received from colostrum?

50 g/L per feeding (100 total)

91
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What are serology test?

the study of antigen - antibody reaction in virtro

92
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What are the three most popular type of serology tests?

AGID, Serum neutralization, ELIZA

93
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How do you interpret the serum neutralization test?

The more tests= higher level of antibodies and vice versa

94
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Why could animals have antibodies in bloodstream?

they have been vaccinated or they are had an immune response to an infection

95
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What are alkylating agents used for?

used in killed and ML to cross link nucleic acid proteins

96
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What is formaldehyde used for?

to fix body tissue and other samples in vaccines

97
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What is an adjuvants in vaccines?

chemical compounds mixed in with the antigens in a vaccine, non-specifically enhances modify the body response to the vaccine antigens in mostly killed

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What is a bacterin?

vaccine made out of bacteria

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What is toxoid?

vaccine made out of an endotoxin

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What is an autogenous?

vaccine made from the agents actually found on the farm (farm specific)