Musculoskeletal High-Yield Clinical Sciences Flashcards

Clinical Sciences

What is the most common benign bone tumor in children?

Osteochondroma.

What is the typical location of osteosarcoma?

Metaphysis of long bones, especially near the knee.

Which benign tumor of bone is painful at night and relieved by aspirin?

Osteoid osteoma.

What is the hallmark radiographic feature of Ewing's sarcoma?

Onion-skin periosteal reaction and moth-eaten appearance.

What is the most common foot tumor affecting the interdigital nerves?

Morton's neuroma.

What are the hallmark signs of rheumatoid arthritis on X-ray?

Joint space narrowing, marginal erosions, and periarticular osteoporosis.

What are Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes?

Heberden's: DIP joint nodules; Bouchard's: PIP joint nodules (seen in OA).

What is the most common initial symptom of ankylosing spondylitis?

Low back pain and morning stiffness improving with exercise.

What gene is associated with reactive arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis?

HLA-B27.

What is the classic triad of reactive arthritis?

Conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis (can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree).

What is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis?

Degeneration of articular cartilage with joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation.

What is the most common inflammatory arthritis?

Rheumatoid arthritis.

Which joints are primarily affected in osteoarthritis?

Weight-bearing joints like knees, hips, and spine.

What lab findings are typical in rheumatoid arthritis?

Positive rheumatoid factor (RF), anti-CCP antibodies, elevated ESR/CRP.

What is the treatment goal for RA?

Early DMARD use to prevent joint destruction.

What is the most common cause of acute monoarthritis?

Septic arthritis.

What organism is most commonly associated with septic arthritis in young adults?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

What is the treatment for gout?

NSAIDs, colchicine, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors like allopurinol.

What joint is most commonly affected in gout?

First metatarsophalangeal joint (big toe).

What is pseudogout caused by?

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition.

What crystals are seen in pseudogout?

Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals.

What are signs of fibromyalgia?

Widespread pain, fatigue, cognitive disturbances, tender points.

How is fibromyalgia diagnosed?

Clinical diagnosis based on symptoms; normal labs.

What is the hallmark feature of polymyalgia rheumatica?

Pain and stiffness in shoulders and hips in elderly, especially in the morning.

What lab findings support PMR?

Elevated ESR and CRP; normal CK.

What is the typical cause of avascular necrosis of the femoral head?

Steroid use, trauma, alcoholism, sickle cell.

What is the most common site of vertebral compression fracture?

Thoracolumbar junction.

What are signs of spinal stenosis?

Pain relieved by flexion, worsened with standing or walking.

What is the most common cause of low back pain?

Mechanical back pain (muscle strain).

What is the straight leg raise test used for?

Detecting lumbosacral radiculopathy (sciatica).

What condition presents with anterior shoulder pain worsened by overhead activity?

Biceps tendinopathy.

What injury results in a positive empty can test?

Supraspinatus tear.

What is the best initial imaging for suspected rotator cuff tear?

MRI of the shoulder.

What nerve is most at risk in anterior shoulder dislocation?

Axillary nerve.

What is the treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome?

Wrist splinting, corticosteroids, surgical decompression.

Which muscles are involved in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?

Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.

What is a positive Finkelstein test?

Pain with ulnar deviation of the wrist, indicating De Quervain's.

What is a ganglion cyst?

Benign soft tissue cyst often on the dorsal wrist.

What is the most common cause of trigger finger?

Stenosing tenosynovitis.

What is Dupuytren's contracture?

Fibrosis of the palmar fascia causing finger flexion.

What nerve is affected in cubital tunnel syndrome?

Ulnar nerve.

What injury presents with 'dinner fork' deformity?

Colles fracture.

What fracture is associated with snuffbox tenderness?

Scaphoid fracture.

What complication is common in scaphoid fractures?

Avascular necrosis.

What is the most commonly injured ligament in ankle sprains?

Anterior talofibular ligament.

What is the Thompson test used for?

Achilles tendon rupture.

What is plantar fasciitis?

Heel pain worst with first steps in the morning.

What condition causes heel pain in young athletes?

Sever's disease (calcaneal apophysitis).

What is hallux valgus?

Lateral deviation of the big toe (bunion).

What is the most common cause of bunion formation?

Improper footwear and genetic predisposition.

What is the treatment for acute compartment syndrome?

Emergency fasciotomy.

What are the 5 P's of compartment syndrome?

Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis.

What condition involves progressive scoliosis and back pain in adolescents?

Scheuermann's disease.

What is Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Apophysitis of the tibial tubercle in growing adolescents.

What test detects meniscal injury?

McMurray test.

What test is used for ACL integrity?

Lachman test.

What injury shows a positive valgus stress test?

Medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury.

What injury shows a positive varus stress test?

Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) injury.

What is Baker's cyst?

Fluid-filled swelling behind the knee due to joint effusion.

What causes patellofemoral pain syndrome?

Overuse, malalignment of the patella.

What is the most common site of bursitis?

Olecranon bursa.

What is the test for iliotibial band tightness?

Ober's test.

What condition presents with anterior knee pain worsened by stairs?

Patellofemoral syndrome.

What is the difference between spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis?

Lysis: stress fracture of pars interarticularis; listhesis: vertebral displacement.

What are red flag symptoms for back pain?

Weight loss, night pain, history of cancer, infection signs, trauma.

What is a common sign of cauda equina syndrome?

Urinary retention and saddle anesthesia.

What imaging is preferred for suspected cauda equina syndrome?

MRI of the lumbar spine.

What is the most common primary bone malignancy in children?

Osteosarcoma.

What tumor presents with 'sunburst' pattern on X-ray?

Osteosarcoma.

What tumor presents with 'soap-bubble' appearance?

Giant cell tumor.

What tumor shows 'onion-skin' appearance?

Ewing's sarcoma.

What condition causes increased bone density and fracture risk?

Osteopetrosis.

What lab abnormality is seen in Paget's disease?

Elevated ALP with normal calcium and phosphate.

What is the pathophysiology of Paget's disease?

Disordered bone remodeling with increased osteoclastic activity.

What condition shows 'ragged rosary' on X-ray and rachitic rosary?

Rickets.

What vitamin deficiency causes rickets?

Vitamin D deficiency.

What is the most common cause of osteomalacia in adults?

Vitamin D deficiency.

What is the clinical sign of hip dislocation in infants?

Positive Ortolani and Barlow maneuvers.

What is Legg-Calv-Perthes disease?

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children.

What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)?

Displacement of femoral head at growth plate, often in obese teens.

What is the most common cause of limping in toddlers?

Transient synovitis.

What condition mimics arthritis but resolves spontaneously?

Transient synovitis.