ATPL - PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

1. Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight?

a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal

b. These forces are equal

c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight

d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

b. These forces are equal

2. The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by:

a. Changes in air density

b. Variations in aeroplane loading

c. Variations in flight altitude

d. Changes in pitch attitude

b. Variations in aeroplane loading

3. To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG:

a. Must always coincide with the AC

b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point

d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limit

b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

4. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls

b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed

d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

5. What criteria determine which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine aeroplane?

a. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage

b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage

c. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust

d. The failure of which causes the least yawing moment

b. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage

6. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

a. Depends on forward speed only

b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed

c. Depends on engine rotational speed only

d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed

7. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing and decrease drag

b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing and decrease drag

c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag

d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient

c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag

8. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:

a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed

b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon

d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

9. A stall warning device must be set to operate:

a. At the stalling speed

b. At a speed just below the stalling speed

c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed

d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed

c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed

10. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power

c. Eliminates floating

d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

11. A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by:

a. Wind speed

b. The aircraft weight

c. Excess engine power

d. Excess airspeed

c. Excess engine power

12. What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag?

a. Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag

b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag

c. Changing aspect ratio has no effect on induced drag

d. Induced drag will equal 1:3 x aspect ratio/chord ratio

b. Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag

13. What phenomenon causes induced drag?

a. Wing tip vortices

b. Wing tanks

c. The increased pressure at the leading edge

d. The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above

a. Wing tip vortices

14. If the stalling speed in a 15 degree bank turn is 60kt, what would the stall speed be in a 45 degree bank?

a. 83kt

b. 70kt

c. 85kt

d. 60kt

b. 70kt

15. In recovery from a spin:

a. Ailerons should be kept neutral

b. Airspeed increases

c. Ailerons used to stop the spin

d. Rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin direction

a. Ailerons should be kept neutral

16. To recover from a spin, the elevators should be:

a. Moved up to increase the angle of attack

b. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack

c. Set to neutral

d. Allowed to float

b. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack

17. Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?

a. Low speed stall

b. High speed stall (shock stall)

c. Deep stall

d. Accelerated stall

c. Deep stall

18. What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?

a. Increased minimum glide angle

b. Decreased minimum glide angle

c. Increased glide range

d. Decreased sink rate

d. Decreased sink rate

19. Which of the following increases the stall angle?

a. Slats

b. Flaps

c. Spoilers

d. Ailerons

a. Slats

20. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:

a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag

b. Lift, gross weight and drag

c. Lift, airspeed and drag

d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

c. Lift, airspeed and drag

21. To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with:

a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy)

b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy)

d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

22. To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be:

a. Near to the stalling speed

b. As high as possible within VNE limits

c. About 30% faster than Vmd

d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

23. The control surface which gives longitudinal control is:

a. The rudder

b. The ailerons

c. The elevators

d. The flaps

c. The elevators

24. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?

a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged

b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs

d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

25. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed:

a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged

c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air

d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

26. If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be:

a. reduced

b. increased

c. the same as for landing with flaps

d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

b. increased

27. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?

a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications

b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed

c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

28. If flaps are lowered during the take-off run:

a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne

b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

c. The lift would decrease

d. The acceleration would increase

b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

29. A yaw damper:

a. Increases rudder effectiveness

b. Must be disengaged before making a turn

c. Augments stability

d. Increases the rate of yaw

c. Augments stability

30. An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be:

a. 76kt

b. 84kt

c. 99kt

d. 140kt

c. 99kt

31. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?

a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack

b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

c. An increase in dynamic stability

d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

32. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind

b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind

c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind

d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind

33. To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced?

a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag

b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag

d. Reduce thrust

b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

34. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?

a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed

b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed

c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

35. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?

a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack

c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack

d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

36. An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts?

a. 30:1

b. 15:1

c. 25:1

d. 7.5:1

b. 15:1

37. If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will:

a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same

c. Decrease

d. Remain the same

a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

38. If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause:

a. An increased angle of bank

b. An increased rate of roll

c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate

d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

b. An increased rate of roll

39. The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is:

a. Higher maximum thrust available

b. Higher maximum efficiency

c. More blade surface area available

d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

40. If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range:

a. Decreases

b. Increases

c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged

d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases