Business Studies Exam Review – Key Acts, Strategies, HR & Quality

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Flashcards cover major legislative acts, business strategies, HR processes, quality management and sector/environment basics for exam preparation.

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105 Terms

1
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What is the main purpose of the Skills Development Act (SDA)?

To encourage businesses to improve workers’ skills and invest in education and training, especially for previously disadvantaged people.

2
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Name one positive impact of the SDA on businesses.

It increases the number of skilled employees with scarce skills (other valid positives accepted).

3
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Give one disadvantage of the SDA for businesses.

Productivity may decline when employees attend learnerships during work hours.

4
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List one activity regarded as non-compliance with the SDA.

Preventing qualified employees from accessing learnerships.

5
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State one possible penalty for non-compliance with the SDA.

A business may receive large fines or jail sentences depending on severity.

6
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What simple way can businesses comply with the SDA?

Display a summary of the SDA where all employees can see it.

7
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Give one key function of SETAs.

Register and promote learnerships within their sector.

8
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How are SETAs mainly funded?

Through 1 % skills development levies collected from employers’ payrolls over R500 000.

9
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What is the aim of the National Skills Development Strategy (NSDS)?

To improve skills in the public sector and outline responsibilities of education and training stakeholders.

10
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State one goal of the Human Resources Development Strategy (HRDS).

To address skills shortages and promote social development by reducing poverty.

11
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What is the primary purpose of the Labour Relations Act (LRA)?

To provide a framework for sound labour relations and promote collective bargaining.

12
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Mention one advantage of the LRA for businesses.

It promotes quick and less expensive labour-dispute resolution.

13
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Give one disadvantage of the LRA for businesses.

Productivity may decrease if employees engage in union activities during work hours.

14
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Name one action that contravenes the LRA.

Unfairly dismissing employees for participating in legal strikes.

15
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Provide one consequence for non-compliance with the LRA.

The Labour Court can revoke the business licence.

16
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How can a business practically comply with the LRA?

Allow employees to form and join trade unions.

17
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State one right of employers under the LRA.

Employers may institute a lockout during illegal labour action.

18
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Give one right of employees under the LRA.

To embark on a legal strike when procedures are followed.

19
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What is the main purpose of the Employment Equity Act (EEA)?

To promote equal opportunity and fair treatment by eliminating unfair discrimination at work.

20
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List one positive impact of the EEA on a business.

Encourages workforce diversity by hiring people from various racial backgrounds.

21
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Give one negative impact of the EEA on businesses.

Submitting equity reports is time-consuming and administratively burdensome.

22
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Name one act of non-compliance with the EEA.

Harassing or victimising an employee based on race, gender, or disability.

23
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State one penalty for ignoring the EEA.

Large fines imposed by the Labour Court, especially for fronting.

24
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How can businesses comply with the EEA?

Pay employees equally for work of equal value.

25
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What is the primary purpose of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act (BCEA)?

To set minimum terms and conditions of employment and promote fair labour practices.

26
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Give one advantage of the BCEA for businesses.

It specifies work hours, preventing exploitation and clarifying expectations.

27
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Mention one disadvantage of the BCEA for employers.

Employers cannot require staff to work more than 45 hours a week, possibly lowering output.

28
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Provide one action that breaches the BCEA.

Refusing lawful maternity leave to an employee.

29
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Give one consequence for BCEA non-compliance.

The Labour Court may issue a compliance order and impose fines or imprisonment.

30
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State one way a firm can comply with the BCEA regarding hours.

Ensure staff do not exceed 45 working hours per week.

31
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How many consecutive days of annual leave is an employee entitled to under the BCEA?

21 consecutive days per year.

32
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What overtime limit does the BCEA set per week?

Maximum 10 hours overtime per week, by agreement.

33
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At what age is it illegal to employ a child in South Africa?

Under 15 years old.

34
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What is the core purpose of the Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment Act (BBBEE)?

To spread wealth and economic participation across all population groups, especially black South Africans.

35
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Name one key difference between old BEE and BBBEE.

BBBEE uses five pillars and targets a broader group of disadvantaged people, whereas BEE focused on three pillars and benefitted a few.

36
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Give one positive business impact of BBBEE.

A good BBBEE rating can attract investors and improve company image.

37
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State one negative impact of BBBEE on companies.

Implementation can be costly and administratively burdensome.

38
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Mention one act that constitutes BBBEE non-compliance.

Promoting unsuitable people over qualified black candidates for scorecard points.

39
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Provide one penalty for BBBEE non-compliance.

Loss of government tenders and large fines or imprisonment.

40
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Name one way to comply with the BBBEE ownership pillar.

Sell shares to black investors inside or outside the organisation.

41
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What is the purpose of the Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act (COIDA)?

To compensate employees for injuries or diseases sustained in the course of employment.

42
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State one advantage of COIDA for businesses.

Promotes safer workplaces by encouraging compliance with health and safety standards.

43
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Give one disadvantage of COIDA for employers.

Annual contributions to the Compensation Fund may strain cash flow.

44
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Name one non-compliance act under COIDA.

Failing to report workplace accidents to the Compensation Commissioner.

45
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What is a possible sanction for ignoring COIDA?

Fines or imprisonment plus a Labour Court compliance order.

46
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List one way businesses can meet COIDA requirements.

Register with the Compensation Commissioner and pay required premiums.

47
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What is the primary goal of the National Credit Act (NCA)?

To promote responsible lending, protect consumers, and ensure equal access to credit.

48
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Give one advantage of the NCA for businesses.

Protects firms from non-paying consumers through clear legal processes.

49
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Mention one disadvantage of the NCA for businesses.

Strict rules add administrative costs and can lower profit from credit sales.

50
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Provide one example of NCA non-compliance.

Granting credit without affordability assessment (reckless lending).

51
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State one result of non-compliance with the NCA.

The National Credit Regulator may revoke the credit provider’s licence.

52
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How can businesses comply with the NCA?

Conduct affordability assessments and register with the National Credit Regulator.

53
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Name one consumer right under the NCA.

To receive reasons if credit is refused.

54
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What is the central purpose of the Consumer Protection Act (CPA)?

To promote fair, transparent and responsible business practices and protect consumer rights.

55
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State one benefit of the CPA for compliant businesses.

Enhanced customer loyalty due to trust and fair dealings.

56
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Give one drawback of the CPA for firms.

Consumers may exploit return policies, leading to unnecessary returns and costs.

57
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Mention one prohibited practice under the CPA.

False or misleading information about a product’s expiry date.

58
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Provide one penalty for CPA non-compliance.

Large fines, jail sentences, or revocation of business licence.

59
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How can a retailer comply with the CPA regarding cooling-off?

Offer a five-day cooling-off period for direct-marketing purchases.

60
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State one consumer right to information under the CPA.

Contracts must be in plain, easy-to-understand language.

61
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Define ‘strategy’ in a business context.

A long-term, purposeful course of action designed to achieve a specific goal.

62
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List the five basic steps of the strategic management process (Option 1).

1 Vision/mission/objectives; 2 Environmental scanning (SWOT/PESTLE); 3 Formulate strategy; 4 Organise resources & motivate staff; 5 Monitor & take corrective action.

63
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What does SWOT stand for?

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats.

64
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Give one example of a SWOT ‘Opportunity’.

A vacant building suitable for expansion (other valid examples accepted).

65
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Name the five forces in Porter’s model.

Power of suppliers, Power of buyers, Barriers to entry, Competitive rivalry, Threat of substitution.

66
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In Porter’s Five Forces, when is supplier power high?

When suppliers offer unique products or there are few alternative sources.

67
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What does PESTLE stand for?

Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental.

68
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Explain forward vertical integration.

A business takes control of its distributors or sales outlets further down the supply chain.

69
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What is market penetration as an intensive strategy?

Selling more existing products to the existing market to increase market share.

70
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Differentiate between market development and product development.

Market development sells current products in new markets; product development introduces new products to existing markets.

71
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Define concentric diversification.

Adding new, related products to appeal to new customers while using existing technology.

72
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What is retrenchment in defensive strategies?

Terminating employees to reduce costs and restructure the business.

73
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List the three business sectors.

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary.

74
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Give one characteristic of the primary sector.

Extraction or harvesting of natural resources.

75
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What level of control does a business have over the macro environment?

No control.

76
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Identify one general challenge within the micro environment.

Lack of adequate management skills.

77
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Define recruitment.

The process of identifying vacancies and attracting suitable candidates.

78
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Name two internal recruitment sources.

Internal email/intranet and office notice boards (others valid).

79
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State one advantage of external recruitment.

It brings new ideas, skills and experiences into the business.

80
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List the first two steps of a typical selection procedure.

1 Determine fair assessment criteria; 2 Screen CVs against those criteria.

81
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Give one purpose of a job interview.

To assess an applicant’s suitability for the job.

82
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Before an interview, what should the interviewer prepare?

A set of questions based on the job’s required skills and knowledge.

83
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What is an employment contract?

A legally binding agreement outlining the rights and duties of employer and employee.

84
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Give one legal requirement of an employment contract.

Both employer and employee must sign it.

85
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Differentiate between piecemeal and time-related pay.

Piecemeal: pay per unit produced; Time-related: pay based on hours/days worked.

86
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What percentage of salary must employees contribute to UIF?

1 % of their basic salary.

87
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Define induction.

The process of introducing new employees to the business, its procedures and colleagues.

88
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List one advantage of a good induction programme.

Quicker adaptation leading to higher productivity.

89
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What is ‘placement’ in HR?

Assigning selected candidates to jobs where they will function best.

90
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Why is continuous skills development important in HR?

Trained employees perform better, increasing productivity and profitability.

91
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How does the LRA affect the HR function?

Dismissals must follow fair procedures; HR must accommodate union activities and collective bargaining.

92
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State one implication of the BCEA for HR managers regarding hours.

Ensure employees work a maximum of 9 hours per day in a 5-day week.

93
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What is quality in business terms?

The ability of a product or service to satisfy customer needs.

94
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Differentiate between quality control and quality assurance.

Control inspects the final product; assurance checks quality at every production stage.

95
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What is a quality management system (QMS)?

A formal framework that documents processes and responsibilities to meet quality objectives.

96
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Define Total Quality Management (TQM).

An integrated, company-wide approach focused on continuous improvement and customer satisfaction.

97
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Name one TQM element.

Continuous skills development (others: continuous improvement, financing & capacity, monitoring & evaluation, total customer satisfaction).

98
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State one advantage of continuous skills development for large businesses.

They can afford specialised trainers and improve overall competence.

99
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Give one disadvantage of continuous improvement initiatives.

They may disrupt well-functioning parts of the business if not managed.

100
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What does the PDCA cycle stand for?

Plan, Do, Check/Analyse, Act.