Virology 4200 Student Presentations 2025

By investigating the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) virome, researchers found that the CSF virome exhibited

a. High alpha diversity and a beta diversity similar to plasma and other bodily fluids

b. High alpha diversity and a beta diversity similar to feces, urine and saliva

c. Low alpha diversity and a beta diversity similar to plasma and other bodily fluids

d. Low alpha diversity and a beta diversity similar to feces, urine and saliva

c. Low alpha diversity and a beta diversity similar to plasma and other bodily fluids

Standard University discovered a new class of biological entities as part of the human virome, termed "Obelisks". Which of the following is FALSE about Obelisks?

a. They have a circular ssDNA genome

b. They primarily colonize the oral cavity and gastrointestinal tract

c. They have an extended rod-like morphology

d. All obelisks encode a novel protein termed "Oblin"

a. They have a circular ssDNA genome

HERV-W, a domesticated EVE, has been co-opted by mammalian hosts due to its role in trophoblast development. Which gene in particular has been co-opted?

a. Gag

b. LTR

c. Pol

d. Envelope

d. Envelope

How did scientists reconstruct the extinct horsepox virus?

a. Extracted viral DNA from a horse preserved in ice

b. Reverse-engineered smallpox virus

c. Combining genetic fragments ordered online

d. Used a smallpox virus as a backbone and introduced mutations to match the horsepox sequence

c. Combining genetic fragments ordered online

What does the Fv4 gene do?

a. Encode viral adhesion proteins to initiate infection

b. Attach to cell surface receptors to interfere with viral attachment

c. It is non-coding

d. None of the above

b. Attach to cell surface receptors to interfere with viral attachment

How do EDIs explain the presence of EVEs?

a. When a virus overcomes an EDI and renders it useless, it becomes an EVE

b. EDIs turn viruses into EVEs

c. EDIs encode viral proteins that form EVEs

d. EDIs are independent from EVEs

a. When a virus overcomes an EDI and renders it useless, it becomes an EVE

Which proteins does the measles virus use to invade immune cells and spread through the bloodstream?

a. Hemagglutinin (H) and Neuraminidase (N)

b. Hemagglutinin (H) and Fusion (F)

c. Hemagglutinin-Neuraminidase (HN) and Fusion (F)

d. E1 and E2 Glycoproteins

b. Hemagglutinin (H) and Fusion (F)

Why is the MMR vaccine less effective against mumps compared to measles and rubella?

a. The vaccine does not target the correct viral proteins

b. Immunity wanes over time, and the vaccine strain does not match the dominant circulating strain

c. The mumps virus mutates more rapidly than measles and rubella

d. Mumps requires a different type of immune response that the MMR vaccine does not elicit

b. Immunity wanes over time, and the vaccine strain does not match the dominant circulating strain

What is the minimum vaccination coverage required to achieve herd immunity against measles?

a. 70%

b. 85%

c. 90%

d. 95%

d. 95%

What is the primary reason why measles increases susceptibility to other infections?

a. It suppresses the body's ability to produce new antibodies

b. It depletes immune memory, leading to immune amnesia

c. It permanently weakens the immune system by destroying white blood cells

d. It mutates rapidly, making previous immunity ineffective

b. It depletes immune memory, leading to immune amnesia

What was a key factor in the resurgence of vaccine hesitancy regarding the MMR vaccine?

a. A study falsely linking the MMR vaccine to autism

b. The introduction of a new vaccine formulation with unknown side effects

c. A worldwide shortage of vaccines

d. A decline in the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine over time

a. A study falsely linking the MMR vaccine to autism

Which country has recently seen an increase in MMR vaccine uptake due to improved appointment accessibility and flexible working patterns?

a. United States

b. Brazil

c. Serbia

d. Scotland

d. Scotland

What is the primary role of bats in ecosystems?

a. Pollination of flowers

b. Seed dispersal in tropical forests

c. Pest control for agricultural crops

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which immune adaptation is key to bats' ability to carry viruses like rabies and Ebola without getting sick?

a. Suppressing viral replication completely

b. Inhibiting immune system activation entirely

c. Balancing strong antiviral responses while suppressing excessive inflammation

d. Constantly producing antibodies against all pathogens

c. Balancing strong antiviral responses while suppressing excessive inflammation

Which species is the primary intermediate host for MERS-CoV?

a. Egyptian tomb bat

b. Dromedary camel

c. Vampire bat

d. Raccoon

b. Dromedary camel

How is rabies typically transmitted to humans from bats?

a. Ingestion of infected meat

b. Bites, scratches, or exposure to infected saliva

c. Airborne transmission

d. Through respiratory droplets

b. Bites, scratches, or exposure to infected saliva

What is the most utilized diagnostic method used to detect bat zoonotic viruses in living patients?

a. RT-PCR

b. Fluorescent antibody test

c. ELISA

d. Histopathological examination

a. RT-PCR

Which proteins are responsible for the evasion of the host immune system in the Ebola virus?

a. VP35

b. GP1

c. VP24

d. A and C

d. A and C

Which of the following statements about coronaviruses is true?

a. All human coronaviruses originated in rodents

b. Bats or small rodents are the original host of all human coronaviruses

c. Coronaviruses cannot undergo recombination

d. Human coronaviruses cannot be transmitted through indirect contact

b. Bats or small rodents are the original host of all human coronaviruses

What determines the tissue tropism for a Coronavirus?

a. The M protein, which determines viral entry into host cells

b. The receptor-binding domain (RBD) of the S protein and its interaction with the host receptor

c. The lipid composition of the viral envelope, which controls receptor binding

d. The N protein, which determines host specificity by interacting with cellular receptors

b. The receptor-binding domain (RBD) of the S protein and its interaction with the host receptor

Which of the following statements about the SARS-CoV-2 pandemic is true?

a. The virus primarily spreads through contaminated food and water sources

b. Rural areas experienced faster viral spread due to high population densities

c. Public health measures such as quarantines and lockdowns helped reduce transmission but caused economic and social disruptions

d. SARS-CoV-2 had an Ro value of less than 1, meaning it was not highly contagious

c. Public health measures such as quarantines and lockdowns helped reduce transmission but caused economic and social disruptions

Why is droplet digital PCR (ddPCR) considered superior to traditional RT-PCR for detecting SARS-CoV-2?

a. It is cheaper and widely available

b. It can detect even very low viral loads more accurately

c. It does not require specialized equipment

d. It eliminates the need for nasal swabs

b. It can detect even very low viral loads more accurately

Which of the following is true regarding vaccination as a preventative measure against long COVID?

a. Vaccination decreases the expression of IL-1B following infection

b. Vaccination prevents memory deficits following infection

c. Vaccination prevents a decrease in neurogenesis following infection

d. Both b and c are correct

e. All of the above are correct

e. All of the above are correct

Which of the following is false regarding the immune response in patients with long COVID?

a. Decreased naïve T and B cell population

b. Increased IFN gamma production

c. Decreased granzyme B production

d. Increased monocytes and NK cell population

c. Decreased granzyme B production

Which of the following proteins acts as HCV's RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?

a. E2

b. NS4B

c. NS5A

d. NS5B

d. NS5B

Which of the following is true regarding HCV infection and its impact on health?

a. Due to the success of direct acting antivirals, the incidence of HCV is likely an overestimation of the true number of infections

b. The production of IFNγ is closely linked to both the activation of hepatic stellate cells and fibrosis

c. HCV is a unique virus because its liver-specific tropism only causes health issues to manifest in the liver

d. The development of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) can be induced directly by viral proteins

d. The development of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) can be induced directly by viral proteins

Which of the following is true about WHO targets for HCV elimination?

a. Current strategies suggest that HCV will be eliminated by all high-income countries (including Canada) by 2030

b. Based on recent data, over 100 countries are currently on track to reach 2030 WHO targets

c. Canadian modelling suggests a need for aggressive screening and treatment strategies to reach WHO targets

d. None of the above

c. Canadian modelling suggests a need for aggressive screening and treatment strategies to reach WHO targets

Which of the following statements about HCV genetics is correct?

a. HCV exists as a single, stable genotype and does not exhibit genetic variability within or between hosts

b. HCV-1 is the most prevalent genotype worldwide and is associated with hepatic steatosis, while HCV-3 is linked to fibrosis and malignant transformation to hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

c. The high mutation rate of HCV is largely attributable to error-prone genome replication by NS5B

d. Host genetic factors have no impact on the outcome of HCV infection, nor do they influence treatment efficacy

c. The high mutation rate of HCV is largely attributable to error-prone genome replication by NS5B

Which of the following hypothetical HCV therapeutics, if administered as a monotherapy, carries the highest risk of causing neutropenia and thrombocytopenia as adverse effects?

a. Avirenol - a small molecule NS3/4A protease inhibitor

b. Bexrivir - a TLR agonist that upregulates endogenous IFN synthesis

c. Cendravax - a chain-terminating ribonucleic analog that competes with GTP for incorporation into growing HCV RNA strands in hepatocytes

d. Dexlomycin - a broad-spectrum antiviral that induces mutations in replicating viral RNA genomes

b. Bexrivir - a TLR agonist that upregulates endogenous IFN synthesis

A chronic Hepatitis C patient is being considered for treatment with Sofosbuvir. The prescribing physician is concerned about resistance development and wants to maximize treatment efficacy. Which of the following therapeutic strategies would most effectively reduce the risk of resistance in this patient?

a. Monotherapy with Sofosbuvir, as it is effective at reducing viral load on its own

b. Combination therapy with Sofosbuvir and an NS5B inhibitor, as this targets two distinct viral replication steps

c. Combination therapy with Sofosbuvir and an NS5A inhibitor, as this targets two distinct viral replication steps

d. Combination therapy with Sofosbuvir and peginterferon, which enhances immune activation and compensates for viral mutations

c. Combination therapy with Sofosbuvir and an NS5A inhibitor, as this targets two distinct viral replication steps

Which of the following best explains why the presence of a polybasic cleavage site in the HA0 protein contributes with increased pathogenicity in avian influenza viruses?

a. It allows the virus to be neutralized by antibodies more effectively

b. It restricts viral replication to cells expressing trypsin-like proteases

c. It enables the HA0 protein to be cleaved by ubiquitous proteases such as furin

d. It decreases the efficiency of the polymerase complex, increasing mutation rates, increasing the likelihood of a mutation that increases pathogenicity

e. It decreases viral release by blocking anti-HA antibody responses

c. It enables the HA0 protein to be cleaved by ubiquitous proteases such as furin

In the context of zoonotic transmission of influenza, what is a primary reason avian strains (e.g., H5N1) do not typically spread efficiently between humans?

a. Avian strains do not replicate efficiently in human cells

b. Avian strains preferentially bind α2,3-linked sialic acid receptors, which predominate in the lower human respiratory tract

c. The avian genome does not contain the segments required for NA synthesis in human tissue

d. The avian virus cannot undergo antigenic drift once inside humans

e. The avian strains are blocked by the inability to form polybasic cleavage sites

b. Avian strains preferentially bind α2,3-linked sialic acid receptors, which predominate in the lower human respiratory tract

When designing a universal influenza vaccine, why are internal proteins, such as nucleoprotein (NP), viable vaccine targets even though they may not prevent initial infection?

a. NP epitopes remain hidden from the immune system, preventing robust humoral and cellular immune responses

b. NP is not conserved and has a high mutation rate, allowing it to evade immune detection

c. Strong NP-specific CD8+ T-cell responses can reduce disease severity by enhancing viral clearance

d. NP-based vaccines always prevent cross-species transmission

e. NP mutations drive rapid antigenic shift, enhancing vaccine coverage

c. Strong NP-specific CD8+ T-cell responses can reduce disease severity by enhancing viral clearance

Which approach most effectively addresses antigenic variability in efforts to create a universal influenza vaccine?

a. Targeting the highly variable HA head domain to induce strain-specific neutralizing antibodies

b. Inducing the overexpression of viral neuraminidase (NA) to induce adaptive immunity

c. Universal vaccines aren't important or needed, so we probably shouldn't waste money developing them

d. Incorporating conserved epitopes from the HA stalk or from M2e to encourage cross-protective responses

e. Designing vaccines that omit any surface proteins, relying on nucleoprotein alone to block infection

d. Incorporating conserved epitopes from the HA stalk or from M2e to encourage cross-protective responses

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) to become the next pandemic?

a. Must contain hemagglutinin (HA) that is either different from recent strains or almost entirely new to humans

b. Must be able to spread efficiently from person to person

c. Must be little or no preexisting immunity in the population

d. Must cause significant clinical illness

e. Must be endemic in livestock such as poultry or cattle

e. Must be endemic in livestock such as poultry or cattle

Which of the following is not a unique aspect of poxviruses?

a. Poxviruses contain preformed proteins in their lateral body

b. Poxviruses have two forms of virions: Extracellular virions with a double outer envelope and mature virions

with a single outer envelope

c. Poxviruses replicate in specialized cytoplasmic factories

d. Poxviruses are the only DNA viruses that replicate using host machinery in the nucleus

d. Poxviruses are the only DNA viruses that replicate using host machinery in the nucleus

What is the mode of transmission for the variola virus?

a. Fecal-oral route

b. Aerosol

c. Vertical transmission

d. Sexual transmission

b. Aerosol

What was the key discovery in 1796 that led to the development of vaccination?

a. The discovery of antibiotics

b. Edward Jenner's inoculation of a child with cowpox material

c. The creation of the Ontario vaccine farms

d. The identification of a virus responsible for smallpox

b. Edward Jenner's inoculation of a child with cowpox material

Which of the following is not true about the monkeypox virus?

a. The natural reservoir of monkeypox virus are monkeys

b. Monkeypox can cause zoonotic infections

c. Monkeypox can be divided into 4 clades

d. Mpox can be characterized by rashes and lymphadenectasis

a. The natural reservoir of monkeypox virus are monkeys

What best describes a key advantage of using Vaccinia Topoisomerase I in DNA cloning?

a. It recognizes random sequences in the DNA, enabling non-specific cleavage

b. It remains catalytically active in a broad range of temperatures, improving versatility in varying experimental conditions

c. It cleaves at specific (C/T)CCTT motifs, enabling precise, site-specific cleavage

d. It maintains high activity even in the presence of typical extraction contaminants, reducing the need for extensive DNA purification

c. It cleaves at specific (C/T)CCTT motifs, enabling precise, site-specific cleavage

Why is Pexa-Vec (JX-594) an effective strain as an oncolytic virotherapy?

a. It retains the thymidine kinase (TK) gene to enhance viral replication within cells

b. It primarily replicates in normal cells, displaying enhanced targeting to cells in the tumour microenvironment

c. It works effectively as a monotherapy, removing the need for combination therapies

d. It lacks the TK gene and encodes GM-CSF to promote anti-tumor immune responses while reducing viral replication in normal cells

d. It lacks the TK gene and encodes GM-CSF to promote anti-tumor immune responses while reducing viral replication in normal cells

Which of the following contributed to higher HIV/AIDS diagnosis rates among Indigenous communities in Canada during the 1970s-1980s?

a. Economic disparities and systemic racism

b. Lack of healthcare access

c. Poverty as a direct risk factor for HIV infection

d. Government-funded prevention programs specifically for Indigenous communities

e. a) and b)

e. a) and b)

Which disease was the leading cause of death among Indigenous people in Canada before and during the 1918 Spanish Flu pandemic?

a. Smallpox

b. Tuberculosis

c. Measles

d. Diphtheria

b. Tuberculosis

What percentage of Indigenous peoples report having unmet healthcare needs in Canada?

a. 10%

b. 25%

c. 45%

d. 33%

b. 25%

Which of the following is true regarding social determinants of health (SDH) according to the World Health Organization?

a. They contribute more to health outcomes than medical factors

b. SDH only affect mental health, not physical health

c. SDH account for 30-55% of all health outcomes

d. Lifestyle choices like diet and exercise change how SDH impact our wellbeing

c. SDH account for 30-55% of all health outcomes

Which monoclonal antibody has NOT been used or considered for use in the treatment of RSV in infants?

a. Rituximab

b. Palivizumab

c. Motavizumab

d. Nirsevimab

a. Rituximab

What has been linked to increased rates of HCV infection in Indigenous communities?

a. Non-injection drugs

b. Injection drugs

c. Being of male sex

d. Co-infection with RSV

b. Injection drugs

Which of the following statements about zoonotic spillover is TRUE?

a. Viruses using host-restricted receptors exhibit broad host ranges, allowing them to infect multiple species

b. Successful zoonotic spillover only requires viruses to overcome the interspecies barrier

c. Human activities like deforestation and wildlife trade increase the risk of zoonotic spillover

d. Zoonotic viruses cannot evade immune detection due to limited genetic diversity

c. Human activities like deforestation and wildlife trade increase the risk of zoonotic spillover

Which of the following best explains how genetic changes facilitate zoonotic virus adaptation?

a. Mutations allow viruses to evade immune responses and may expand host range, as seen with canine distemper virus (CDV)

b. Reassortment involves amino acid substitutions that increase receptor-binding efficiency, enabling broader tissue tropism

c. Tissue tropism influences which tissues a virus can infect, affecting its ability to sustain human-to-human transmission

d. Recombination occurs when viruses switch between conserved and host-restricted receptors, increasing spillover potential

a. Mutations allow viruses to evade immune responses and may expand host range, as seen with canine distemper virus (CDV)

Which of the following is the most effective strategy for managing antiviral resistance and preventing the spread of drug-resistant strains?

a. Administering a single antiviral to minimize mutation rates and specifically target the virus

b. Periodically stopping and reintroducing antiviral treatment to reduce selective pressure and prevent the emergence of resistant strains

c. Utilizing combination therapies, screening for genetic variants, and employing antivirals that target host functions at optimal doses

d. Using broad-spectrum antivirals that directly target the virus to ensure viral clearance

c. Utilizing combination therapies, screening for genetic variants, and employing antivirals that target host functions at optimal doses

Which intervention would be most effective in reducing future zoonotic outbreaks while balancing ecological and socioeconomic concerns?

a. Strictly banning all forms of wildlife trade and bushmeat consumption to eliminate direct human exposure to zoonotic reservoirs

b. Implementing sustainable land-use policies that limit deforestation while promoting buffer zones between human settlements and high-risk wildlife habitats

c. Mass vaccination of livestock in affected areas to reduce the risk of transmission from domesticated animals to humans

d. Increasing airport health screenings and travel restrictions to prevent global spread of emerging zoonotic diseases

b. Implementing sustainable land-use policies that limit deforestation while promoting buffer zones between human settlements and high-risk wildlife habitats

Which of the following statements best explains the differing primary transmission routes of Nipah virus in Malaysia, Bangladesh, and India?

a. In Malaysia, the virus was primarily transmitted from pigs to humans, whereas in Bangladesh, it spread through contaminated date palm sap, and in India, nosocomial and human-to-human transmission played a significant role

b. In all three regions, Nipah virus spread predominantly through direct bat-to-human transmission due to close human-wildlife interactions

c. The main factor influencing transmission in Malaysia was climate change, while in Bangladesh and India, population density was the primary driver

d. The outbreaks in Malaysia, Bangladesh, and India all followed the same transmission pathway, with pigs acting as the consistent intermediate host

a. In Malaysia, the virus was primarily transmitted from pigs to humans, whereas in Bangladesh, it spread through contaminated date palm sap, and in India, nosocomial and human-to-human transmission played a significant role

Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Land sparing and land sharing are both effective ways to reduce the human-wildlife interface

b. Implementing preventative measures like viral disease surveillance and wildlife trade regulations is cheaper than waiting for a pandemic to occur before we respond

c. Strong communication from public health officials is crucial for people to understand the risks of zoonotic disease

d. An effective way to reduce the risk of zoonotic transmission is to ban wildlife trade completely

d. An effective way to reduce the risk of zoonotic transmission is to ban wildlife trade completely

What mechanism of action is unique to the oncolytic activity of vaccinia virus (Pexa-Vec) relative to the other viruses discussed?

a. Direct cancer cell lysis

b. Induction of an anti-tumor immune response

c. Vascular shutdown

d. Destruction of immunosuppressive tumor microenvironment (TME)

c. Vascular shutdown

Which of the following is not a challenge in oncolytic virus treatment?

a. Immunostimulatory tumor microenvironment

b. Dense extracellular matrix

c. Pre-existing antibodies

d. Determining most effective route of delivery (intratumoral vs. intravenous)

a. Immunostimulatory tumor microenvironment

How does the VSVΔ51 mutant help reduce off-target effects?

a. It blocks type I interferon production in surrounding healthy cells

b. It enhances viral replication only in healthy cells

c. It produces a "cytokine cloud," triggering type I interferon release after tumor cell lysis

d. It prevents immune cells from recognizing infected tumor cells

c. It produces a "cytokine cloud," triggering type I interferon release after tumor cell lysis

Why are combination therapies often used with VSV and Maraba viruses in cancer treatment?

a. They help target only one specific type of tumor

b. Not all tumors have defects in type I interferon, so additional treatments enhance efficacy

c. They prevent the viruses from replicating too quickly in tumor cells

d. Combination therapies eliminate the need for genetic engineering of the viruses

b. Not all tumors have defects in type I interferon, so additional treatments enhance efficacy

Which of the following characteristics makes Newcastle Disease Virus (NDV) a promising oncolytic virus for cancer therapy?

a. Low pre-existing immunity in humans

b. Low neurotoxicity risk and minimal side effects

c. Selective replication in tumor cells without integration into host genome

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

How can recombinant Newcastle Disease Viruses (NDVs) enhance their therapeutic effect against tumors?

a. By preventing immune activation in the tumor microenvironment (TME)

b. By expressing tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) in combination with immunostimulatory molecules

c. By avoiding apoptosis to maintain long-term viral replication

d. By suppressing the host immune response to reduce inflammation

b. By expressing tumor-associated antigens (TAAs) in combination with immunostimulatory molecules

What is the standardized method for phage susceptibility testing?

a. Double agar layer assay

b. Western Blotting

c. Liquid bacterial inoculum testing

d. There is no standardized method

d. There is no standardized method

What are the limitations of each method of phage administration?

a. Systemic - rapid immune clearance. Direct - poor distribution. Oral - acidic stomach pH

b. Systemic - poor distribution. Direct - rapid immune clearance. Oral - acidic stomach pH

c. Systemic - acidic stomach pH. Direct - poor distribution. Oral - rapid immune clearance

d. Systemic - rapid immune clearance. Direct - acidic stomach pH. Oral - poor distribution

a. Systemic - rapid immune clearance. Direct - poor distribution. Oral - acidic stomach pH

What is one major reason why pharmaceutical companies are hesitant to invest in phage therapy?

a. Phages are universally ineffective against antibiotic-resistant bacteria

b. Phages have unpredictable side effects in humans

c. Naturally occurring phages are difficult to patent, limiting commercial incentives

d. Phage therapy has already been fully regulated by international health bodies

c. Naturally occurring phages are difficult to patent, limiting commercial incentives

What is one strategy being implemented to support the clinical use of phage therapy in Canada?

a. Offering free phage therapy through all hospitals by 2024

b. Creating a global phage bank for universal access

c. Launching PhageSTAR, a national program piloting a centralized phage therapy service

d. Mandating phage therapy as a first-line treatment for all infections

c. Launching PhageSTAR, a national program piloting a centralized phage therapy service

Which of the following statements best explains the decline of phage therapy in the mid-20th century?

a. Phages were proven to be ineffective in clinical settings

b. Antibiotics like penicillin were easier to mass-produce and had broader activity

c. Phage therapy caused harmful mutations in bacterial DNA

d. Phages were banned by international medical organizations

b. Antibiotics like penicillin were easier to mass-produce and had broader activity

Why are only lytic phages used in clinical phage therapy?

a. They do not require bacterial receptors to initiate infection

b. They integrate into the host genome and remain dormant

c. They rapidly replicate and destroy the host bacterium without integrating into host genome

d. They form stable pseudolysogenic states for long-term suppression

c. They rapidly replicate and destroy the host bacterium without integrating into host genome

Which of the following steps does NOT occur when developing a viral vector?

a. Harvesting the viral products by lysing previously transfected cells

b. Generating an engineered virus that is not infectious

c. Transfecting an appropriate cell line with the virus of interest, typically as a plasmid

d. Purification of the virus via ultracentrifugation, followed by flow cytometry to analyze the viral vector obtained

d. Purification of the virus via ultracentrifugation, followed by flow cytometry to analyze the viral vector obtained

Which of the following is an application of rAAV gene therapy?

a. Treating leukemia by replacing defective tumour suppressor genes

b. Enhancing muscle mass by delivering growth hormone genes

c. Restoring vision in patients with Leber Congenital Amaurosis by delivering a functional RPE65 gene

d. Reversing Alzheimer's disease progression using neural gene editing

c. Restoring vision in patients with Leber Congenital Amaurosis by delivering a functional RPE65 gene

What are the key differences between the 2 major systems used for rAAV production?

a. The HEK239 system uses baculoviruses to infect human cells

b. The baculovirus system uses mammalian cells, while the HEK293 system uses insect cells

c. The baculovirus system integrates rAAV into the host genome, while the HEK293 system does not

d. The HEK293 system relies on triple transfection of plasmids, while the baculovirus system uses infected Sf9 insect cells

d. The HEK293 system relies on triple transfection of plasmids, while the baculovirus system uses infected Sf9 insect cells

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the most current generation of lentiviral vectors?

a. Virions are pseudotyped with VSV-G to increase tropism via interaction with the LDL receptor

b. Deletion of the lentiviral accessory proteins, to increase safety of the vector

c. Preference for integration near or within transcriptional regulatory regions

d. Ability to transduce both proliferating and non-proliferating cells

c. Preference for integration near or within transcriptional regulatory regions

What is attractive about the use of lentiviral vectors in gene therapy?

a. Reduced risk of insertional oncogenesis, with long-term stability and transduction efficacy

b. Requirement for transducing cells which are actively proliferating

c. The generation of replication competent virions, which can spread disease treatment beyond those cells directly targeted by therapy

d. Limited cell tropism, allowing for highly specific targeting with transduction therapy

a. Reduced risk of insertional oncogenesis, with long-term stability and transduction efficacy

What is FALSE about the current state of gene therapy?

a. There continues to be approval of new viral-based gene therapies, where the majority of recently approved gene therapies in Canada are virus based

b. One of the main limitations to viral therapy is the cost to develop the therapies

c. There continues to be development in CRISPR-Cas9 therapies, where the first one was just recently approved

d. Pre-formed biases, such as religious bias, limit some people to be supportive of viral-based therapies

a. There continues to be approval of new viral-based gene therapies, where the majority of recently approved gene therapies in Canada are virus based

How do predictive pandemic modeling techniques, such as SEIR models and GIS-based approaches, best explain their role in public health strategies?

a. They identify specific mutations within the HA head domain that could be used to induce universal influenza immunity.

b. They categorize individuals into groups to simulate disease transmission and assess interventions to guide surveillance and biosecurity.

c. They replace the need for clinical trials by evaluating vaccine safety and efficacy.

d. They simplify viral evolution to a single factor, removing the need to consider environmental variables.

e. They can predict the exact cause and starting location of future pandemics with a high degree of accuracy.

b. They categorize individuals into groups to simulate disease transmission and assess interventions to guide surveillance and biosecurity.