Hnrs Physio Final

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process whereby phagocytes find their way to site of infection or inflammation

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1

process whereby phagocytes find their way to site of infection or inflammation

B) chemotaxis

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2

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is

the flu has several strains that change seasonally

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3

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

haptens

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4

Which of the following is NOT associated with aging of the immune system?

increased recognition of self vs. nonself

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5

Which of the following best describes the qualities of most antigens?

macromolecules that are foreign to the host

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6

digestion of antigen into fragments; connection of fragments to MHC complex

B) antigen processing

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7

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

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8

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

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9

results from lack of self-tolerance, more common with aging

A) autoimmunity

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10

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does not describe the classical pathway of complement activation.

It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

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11

A vaccine is effective because ________.

the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

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12

Immunocompetence ________.

is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

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13

substance secreted by NK cells; damages pathogen's cell membrane

C) perforin

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14

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.

Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

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15

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.

producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

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16

Which is NOT true of antibodies?

They are produced by T cells.

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17

Which of the following lists contains only antigen presenting cells (APCs)?

B cells, dendritic cells, macrophages

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18

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

bone marrow

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19

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

natural killer cells

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20

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

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21

The first line of defense against pathogens includes

the skin and mucous membranes.

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22

Why can the body recognize so many different antigens?

The genes for antigen receptors can be recombined to form many different receptor proteins.

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23

An advantage of innate immunity is ________.

its barriers that prevent pathogens from entering into the body

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24

Which of the following does not describe actions of interferon (IFN)?

IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus.

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25

specialization of cells

D) differentiation

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26

Fever ________.

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

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27

insertion of antigen fragment-MHC complex into plasma membrane

A) antigen presentation

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28

B cells do each of the following EXCEPT

react more strongly to unprocessed antigens than processed ones.

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29

differentiate into antibody producing cells

A) B cells

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30

1st antibody class to be secreted by plasma cells after the 1st exposure to antigen

E) IgM

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31

Which substance prevents viral replication?

interferon

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32

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

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33

Which of the following is NOT a phagocyte?

lymphocyte

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34

What do all nonspecific defenses have in common?

All of these are correct.

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35

Blood groups are based on

the presence of inherited antigens on the surfaces of erythrocytes.

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36

Which of the following does NOT correctly describe a mechanism that prevents excessive blood clotting?

Presence of vitamin K blocks platelet adhesion and release.

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37

transporter that carries Fe3+ to red bone marrow

E) transferrin

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38

loss of large quantity of blood

B) hemorrhage

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39

Which of the following is NOT normally found inside platelets?

fibrinogen

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40

Each of the following is a constituent of plasma EXCEPT

formed elements

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41

portion of hemoglobin molecule that binds O2

D) heme

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42

produces monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

C) CFU-GM

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43

The ABO blood group is based on the presence of

type A and type B glycolipids on the surfaces of erythrocytes.

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44

Which of type of anemia is inherited?

sickle cell anemia

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45

Three year old Juanita has a rare form of leukemia. The doctors have recommended, and her family has agreed, that her best chance of survival is to destroy her bone marrow and then replace it with stem cells from a donor. Which of the following sources of stem cells would probably be best?

stored cord-blood from her baby sister

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46

portion of hemoglobin molecule that ultimately gives urine and feces their colors

A) Fe2+

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47

Hemoglobin

transports most of the O2 and about 7% of the CO2 between the tissues and the lungs.

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48

dissolves blood clot

fibrinolysis

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49

Which of the following is NOT associated with hemophilia?

Simultaneous, unregulated blood clotting and hemorrhage throughout the body.

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50

Which of the following hematocrit values indicates that a patient has polycythemia?

62%

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51

Which of the following does not arise from a myeloid stem cell?

Lymphocyte

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52

produces cells that will fragment to become platelets

B) CFU-Meg

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53

normal number of RBCs

C) 4.8 million-5.4 million /µL

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54

Which of the following is NOT correct?

Chemotaxis refers to the intracellular destruction of pathogens by phagocytic cells.

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55

Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with bone marrow transplantation?

Reduced risk of infection in the two weeks immediately following the procedure.

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56

Leukemia

Produces large numbers of abnormal leukocytes.

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57

Hemostasis

All of the above are correct

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58

Which of the following is NOT correct?

RBCs have a spheroidal shape.

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59

RBCs display antigens A and B

Type AB

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60

Which of the following is NOT function of blood?

promote blood loss

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61

cell type listed that gives rise to all other blood cells

E) pluripotent stem cell

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62

RBCs display only antigen B

Type B

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63

Jason has circulating anti-B, but not anti-A, antibodies. Which blood type does he have?

A

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64

Erythropoiesis

Normally keeps pace with RBC destruction.

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65

include B cells, T cells, and NK cells

C) lymphocytes

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66

Hemoglobin

Has an Fe2+ at the center of it's heme group.

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67

A medical technology student is learning to count blood cells the low-tech way: using a microscope and a special slide called a hemocytometer. She has just found a round, darkly-stained white blood cell that contains large granules. She cannot see the cell's nucleus. The student is probably looking at a

basophil

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68

numbers increase greatly during bacterial infections, burns and inflammations

E) neutrophils

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69

antibodies

E) immunoglobulins

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70

normal number of WBCs

A) 5000-10,000 /µL

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71

numbers increase in viral and fungal infections; become large phagocytic cells once they leave the blood vessels

D) monocytes

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72

plasma minus clotting proteins

D) serum

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73

Place the following in the order in which they develop: 1. lymphoid stem cells 2. myeloid stem cells 3. megakaryocytes 4. megakaryoblasts 5. platelet 6. megakaryocyte colony forming cells

2, 6, 4, 3, 5 but never 1

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74

Deandray has circulating anti-A, anti-B and anti-D antibodies. Which of the following blood types may safely receive blood from him?

All of these types may safely receive blood from him.

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75

RBCs display neither antigen A or B

Type O

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76

clotting protein

C) fibrinogen

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77

transport iron

D) globulin

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78

Select the events that occur during the plateau phase of a cardiac contractile action potential and place them in the order in which they occur during that phase.1. rapid depolarization of the membrane2. inactivation of the fast Na+ channels3. action potential in develops in neighboring cells4. release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum5. opening of voltage-gated slow Ca2+ channels6. opening of voltage-gated fast Na+ channels7. entry of Ca2+ from the interstitial fluid8. decreased permeability to K+ due to closing of some K+ channels 9. voltage-gated K+ channels open 10. closure of Ca2+ channels11. restoration of the resting membrane potential

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79

In cardiac muscle,

most of the ATP used while at rest comes from oxidation of fatty acids.

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80

Blood passing through the bicuspid valve will enter the

left ventricle

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81

Which of the following are normally observed in the right atrium after birth?

openings from the coronary sinus, superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

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82

A patient's maximum cardiac output is 20 L/min. Her resting cardiac output is 5 L/min. What is the patient's cardiac reserve?

15 L/min

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83

During the cardiac cycle, there is an interval during which cardiac fibers are contracting but not shortening. The intraventricular pressure increases, but the ventricular volume remains the same. What is this interval called?

isovolumetric contraction

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84

All of the following are true of the development of the heart EXCEPT:

The hole in the interatrial septum of the fetal heart is called the foramen ovale.

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85

The QRS complex of the ECG is associated with

ventricular depolarization

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86

The primary pacemaker of the heart is the

SA node

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87

Which of the following statements is true of heart rate?

Regular exercise tends to reduce resting heart rate in both males and females.

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88

Each of the cardiac valves

A and C are correct.

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89

Place the following in order of the propagation of a cardiac action potential1. Purkinje fibers2. SA node3. right and left bundle branches4. AV bundle5. AV nodeA) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1B) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3C) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1D) 2, 4, 3, 1, 4E) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

2, 5, 4, 3, 1

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90

A medical student examines a valve that has been removed from a heart. He observes that the valve has 3 crescent moon shaped cusps, but no chordae tendinae. What conclusion could he draw based on those observations?

The valve could be either the aortic or the pulmonary semilunar valve.

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91

Why doesn't a significant amount of blood flow back into the vena cavae and coronary sinus during atrial contraction?

the contraction of the atria compresses and closes the venous openings

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92

A patient's ECG contains a prolonged P-Q interval, but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is true of this patient's condition?

The patient may have coronary artery disease.

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93

Which of the following is NOT true of regulation of heart rate?

Sympathetic impulses travel to the heart primarily along the vagus (X) nerves.

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94

Which of the following describe the relaxation period of the cardiac cycle?

it is a time that becomes shorter as the heart rate increases

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95

Which of the following correlations between cardiac contractions and ECG waves is correct?

ventricular systole begins after the QRS complex appears

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96

A myocardial infarction

A and B are correct.

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97

Which of the following would be expected to slow heart rate and decrease cardiac output?

ACh

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98

Which of the following are normally observed in the left ventricle after birth?

raised bundles of cardiac muscle fibers called trabeculae carneae

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99

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood flows as it moves lower body to the to the left atrium?1. Pulmonary veins2. Superior vena cava3. Right ventricle4. Pulmonary valve5. Pulmonary trunk and arteries6. Inferior vena cava7. Tricuspid valve8. Right atrium9. Lungs

6, 8, 7, 3, 4, 5, 9, 1, but never 2

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100

A patient has pulmonary edema but not peripheral edema. Which of the following is probably true of the patient's heart?

the patient's left ventricle is failing

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