Human Diseases Exam 1

Which of the following is an example of homeostasis?

A. elevation of blood pressure during exercise and depression of blood pressure during sleep

B. maintenance of body temperature at 37 degrees Celsius

C. regulation of blood pH at 7.35

D. all of the above

D. All of the above

The study of the cause of disease is known as...?

etiology

Disease may be caused by _________

A. malnutrition

B.injury

C. infection

D. any of the above

D. any of the above

The human body's ability to maintain stability amidst changing conditions is called________

homeostasis

John sees his doctor because he has been tired and he has had a sore throat and fever for 5 days. When she examines John's throat the doctor observes redness and yellow patches. Which one of the following is a clinical symptom?

A. sore throat

B. fever

C. yellow patches

D. redness

C. yellow patches

If the cause of the disease is unknown, it is_______

A. mutated

B. idiopathic

C. congenital

D. resistant

B. idiopathic

Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Hence, tuberculosis is best classified as which type of disease?

A. auto-immune

B. infectious

C. hereditary

D. idiopathic

B. infectious

John sees his doctor because he has been tired and he has had a sore throat and fever for 5 days. When she examines John's throat, the doctor observes redness and yellow patches. A throat culture shows that John has Group A streptococcal bacteria. John's disease is best classified as___________.

A. hereditary

B. autoimmune

C. infectious

D. idiopathic

C. infectious

Which of the following best describes a complication?

A. relapse of a disease formerly in remission

B. disease leaving a permanent disability

C. serious disease with a poor prognosis

D. disease developing in patient already experiencing another disease

D. disease developing in patient already experiencing another disease

Hearing loss following recovery from meningitis is best described as an_______.

A. relapse

B. sequela

C. remission

D. exacerbation

D. exacerbation

Which term means the predicted outcome of a disease?

A. prognosis

B. plasia

C. diagnosis

D. pathology

A. prognosis

Mary's signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis diminished following medical treatment. Shortly after treatment her signs and symptoms returned with greater severity. Mary experienced which phenomenon?

A. remission

B. relapse

C. complication

D. exacerbation

B. relapse

A patient's pulse, respiration, and skin color are all_______?

A. syndromes

B. diagnoses

C. signs

D. sypmtoms

C. signs

Which of the following is important in determining a diagnosis?

A. patient history

B. physical examination

C. patient interview

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Which describes a disease that occurs in large numbers over a widespread area?

A. epidemic

B. mortality

C. morbidity

D. prevalence

A. epidemic

A collection of signs and symptoms that occur together is a________.

A. diagnosis

B. syndrome

C. etiology

D. prognosis

B. syndrom

Which procedure extracts tissue for microscopic examination?

A. positron emission tomography

B. electrocardiography

C. computed tomography

D. electroencephalogram

E. biopsy

E. biopsy

Which is true of pallative treatment?

A. has no effect on the symptoms of a disease

B. cures a disease

C. reduces severity of disease symptoms

D. eliminates symptoms of a disease

A. has no effect on the symptoms of a disease

The study of occurence, distribution, transmission, and prevention of disease is its_______.

A. immunology

B. pathology

C. epidemiology

D. etiology

C. epidemiology

Which diagnostic method is used to determine if a disease is hereditary?

A. xray

B. magnetic resonance imaging

C. urinalysis

D. family history

D. family history

What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation?

A. swelling

B. redness

C. heat

D. pain

E. all of the above

E. all of the above

HIV is not transmitted via_______.

A. casual contact

B. blood

C. breast milk

D. vaginal secretions

E. semen

A. casual contact

Stress causes an increased production of which hormone?

A. insulin

B. cortisol

C. growth hormone

D. histamine

B. cortisol

The secondary response to invasion by the same microbe will be________.

A. faster

B. stronger

C. longer lasting

D. A and B only

E. A, B, and C

E. A, B, and C

Which cells respond rapidly during a secondary immune response?

A. T

B. B

C. neutrophils

D. memory

D. memory

Which cells kill virus infected cells?

A. T- cytotoxic

B. T helper

C. B

D. plasma

A. T cytotoxic

Which of the following cells actively secrete lymphokines?

A. Cytotoxic T cells

B. suppressor cells

C. helper cells

D. plasma cells

C. helper cells

Which describes phagocytosis?

A. natural killer cells destroy abnormal cells by contact

B. leukocytes take in and destroy foreign material

C. abnormal inflammatory response

D. leukocytes migrate out of blood vessels into damaged tissue

B. leukocytes take in and destroy foreign material

Which is the cause of immune system damage in AIDS?

A. Pneumocystis carinii

B. herpes virus type 2

C. human immunodeficiency virus

D. mycobacterium tuberculosis

C. human immunodeficiency virus

What is a characteristic of a systemic hypersensitive response that produces anaphylaxis?

A. failure of the inflammatory response to activate

B. generation of large amounts of antibodies

C. excessive response by the humoral immune system

D. massive release of histamine

D. massive release of histamine

What offers localized protection and mucosal surfaces?

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgG

D. IgD

A. IgA

What type of hypersensitivity is produced by bee venom, foods, or pollen?

A. type IV

B. type II

C. type III

D. type I

D. type I

What is the cause of scleroderma?

A. hormonal factors

B. genetic factors

C. not known

D. environmental factors

B. genetic factors

Which of the following is part of nonspecific immunity?

A. natural killer cells

B. interferon

C. fever

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Humoral immunity includes________.

A. lymphocytes

B. natural killer cells

C. antibodies

D. fever

C. antibodies

Hyperemia is to fever as edema is to______?

A. swelling

B. pus

C. inflammatory exudates

D. none of the above

A. swelling

What leukocytes fight infection?

A. B lymphocytes

B. plasma cells

C. natural killer cells

D. neutrophils

D. neutrophils

Which cells kill cancer cells and other abnormal cells?

A. B lymphocytes

B. plasma cells

C. helper T lymphocytes

D. cytotoxic T lymphocytes

D. cytotoxic T lymphocytes

When a tissue comes in contact with an allergen, which of the following reactions can be expected?

A. release of histamine

B. production of antibodies

C. dilation of blood vessels

D. any of the above

D. any of the above

AIDS can be transmitted through which methods?

A. sexual contact

B. mother to infant

C. shared hypodermic needles

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Penicillin disrupts bacterial________.

A.ribosomes

B. cell walls

C. cell membranes

D. DNA synthesis

C. cell membranes

Viruses are different from bacteria in that viruses________.

A. are single celled organisms

B. have cell membranes

C. have genetic material

D. cannot grow their own

C. have genetic material

Corkscrew shaped bacteria are called______.

A. spirochetes

B. cocci

C. vibrios

D. bacilli

A. spirochetes

Which of these is NOT a contagious disease?

A. strep throat

B. influenza

C. malaria

D. measles

C. malaria

Long, whip like appendages used for swimming are called______.

A. mycelia

B. flagella

C. endospores

D. vibrios

B. flagella

The protein coat of a virus is its_______.

A. mycelia

B. capsid

C. core

D. nucleus

B. capsid

Any disease caused by a microorganism is considered_______.

A. contagious

B. infectious

C. communicable

D. inflammatory

B. infectious

Which is NOT a characteristic of bacteria?

A. nucleus

B. single celled organism

C. binary fission

D. cell walls

A. nucleus

Bacteria that do not fit well into the shape and Gram stain pattern include______.

A. spirochetes

B. rickettsias

C. cocci

D. vibrios

B. rickettsias

Which of the following applies to an endospore?

A. bacterial toxin

B. survive harsh conditions

C. cell locomotion

D. bacterial reproduction

B. survive harsh conditions

Single-celled microbes that are much larger than bacteria and have complex internal structures with a nucleus and organelles are called_______.

A. fungi

B. helminths

C. roundworms

D. protozoa

D. protozoa

Those who harbor an infectious agent but do not have signs or symptoms are called_______?

carriers

An example of a disease transmitted vertically is______.

A. measles

B. influenza

C. Ophthalmia neonatorum

D. tuberculosis

C. Ophthalmia neonatorum

Drugs that paralyze the muscles of the disease producing organism are effective against______?

A. protozoa

B. helminths

C. bacteria

D. insect vectors

D. insect vectors

Which of the following are microscopic, single celled organisms without a nucleus or membranes organelles?

A. virus

B. protozoa

C. helminths

D. bacteria

D. bacteria

Which of the following is necessary to reduce development of antibiotic resistant strains of microbes?

A. take antibiotics for every infection

B. stop taking pills as soon as the symptoms disappear

C. take antibiotics at the first sign of an infection

D. continue use of a prescription until all the medication is used

D. continue use of a prescription until all the medication is used

The recent increase in Lyme disease is the result of the reintroduction of deer into many areas of the country. The deer_________.

A. are vectors of lyme disease

B. are the reservoir of the disease

C. transmit Lyme disease to humans

D. have no role in Lyme disease

B. are the reservoir of the disease

Amoeboids move by means of cell membrane extensions called______?

A. fimbriae

B. psuedopodia

C. flagella

D. capsules

B. psuedopodia

The study of the transmission, occurrence, distribution, and control of disease is_______.

A. infection

B. epidemiology

C. incidence

D. prevalence

B. epidemiology

Infectious agents composed only of protein are______.

A. bacteria

B. protozoan

C. prions

D. viruses

C. prions

A cancer of fibrous connective tissue is called a(n)_______.

A. leiomyosarcoma

B. fibrosarcoma

C. rhabdomyosarcama

D. chondrosarcoma

B. fibrosarcoma

The_______encodes for proteins that regulate cell growth and differentiation.

A. oncogene

B. tumor repair gene

C. tumor supressor gene

D. DNA repair gene

A. oncogene

Surgical treatments for breast cancer include mastecomy and _________.

A. cautery

B. biopsy

C. cryosurgery

D. lumpectomy

D. lumpectomy

Which of the following are risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A. polycystic ovary disease

B. endometriosis

C. history of pelvic inflammatory disease

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Cancer of sperm producing cells is called a(n)_________.

A. myosarcoma

B. stem cell tumor

C. seminoma

D. adenosarcoma

C. seminoma

Treatment response to radiation, chemotherapy, and surgery for testicular tumors is associated with a __% response rate.

A. 60

B. 40

C. 25

D. 80

D.80

Greater than 90% esophogeal cancer is attributed to______.

A. alcohol use

B. tobacco use

C. inadequate intake of fresh fruits and vegetables

D. all of the above

B. tobacco use

Hodgkin's disease and non-hodgkin's lymphoma are cancers of ______ tissue.

A. muscle

B. blood

C. lymph

D. bone

C. lymph

A distinguishing feature between Hodgkin's disease and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is the prescence of ________.

A. Heliobacter pylori

B. Reed-Sternberg cells

C. indolent tumors

D. all of the above

B. Reed-Sternberg cells

Risk factors for thyroid cancer include all of the following except_________.

A. radiation

B. iodine excess

C. iodine deficiency

D. radioactive iodine

B. iodine excess

Cancer of the sympathetic nervous system that consists of immature embryonic like cells is known as a ________.

A. medulloblastoma

B. Wilms' tumor

C. neuroblastoma

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

C. neuroblastoma

The majority of melanoma appear on the ______ in men and on the_______in women.

A. ear and nose

B. back and legs

C. nose and ear

D. legs and back

B. back and legs

Proliferation of abnormal white blood cells occurs in_______.

A. leukemia

B. lymphoma

C. neuroblastoma

D. Ewing sarcoma

A. leukemia

A soft tissue childhood sarcoma of red muscle is called a________.

A. rhabdomyosarcoma

B. medulloblastoma

C. osteosarcoma

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

A. rhabdomyosarcoma

The prognosis and treatment of cancer is affected by________.

A. nutrition

B. cancer stage

C. chronic disease

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography in women over the age of ________.

A. 20

B. 40

C. 50

D. 30

B. 40

Neoplasia means_________.

A. malignancy

B. tumor

C. cancer

D. new growth

D. new growth

Over expression of _________ leads to the conversion of normal cell to a malignant cell.

oncogene

Hepatitis B and C are common causes _________ cancer.

liver

Heliobacter pylori infection is associated with ________ cancer.

stomach

Which of the following is true of sex linked traits?

A. usually affect females

B. result from mutation

C. never affect females

D. normally show up in males

D. normally show up in males

If a person has only X type of sex chromosomes that person would ___________.

A. abnormal

B. male

C. female

D. missing essential proteins

C. female

Accumulation of excess phenylalanine causes______.

A. cerebral palsy

B. PKU

C. cystic fibrosis

D. MS

B. PKU

Which of the following is a recessive disorder?

A. polydactyly

B. familial hypercholesterolemia

C. PKU

D. achondroplasoa

C. PKU

Klinefelter's syndrome occurs in_______.

A. females

B. males

C. congenital defect cases

D. hermaphrodites

B. males

Albinism is the lack of the production of _________.

A. insulin

B. melanin

C. phenylalanine

D. melatonin

B. melanin

The scientific study of inheritance is called_______.

genetics

A matching set of genes for a given trait is called_______.

A. homozygous

B. twins

C. codominant

D. heterozygous

A. homozygous

At times, dominant allele is not fully expressed and is called________.

A. inoperable

B. reduced penetrance

C. codominant

D. mutation

B. reduced penetrance

Which of the following is considered to be the most common recessive disorder in the US?

A. hemochromatosis

B. PKU

C. cystic fibrosis

D. albinism

C. cystic fibrosis

Achondroplasia dwarfism usually results from _________.

A. spontaneous mutuation

B. dwarf parents

C. radiation exposure

D. recessive genes

D. recessive genes

LactAid may be taken by individuals with ________.

A. hemophilia

B. diabetes

C. PKU

D. galactosemia

D. galactosemia

What tropical disease has been associated with sickle cell trait?

malaria

Which of the following is true of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?

A. results in weak, atrophied muscles

B. occurs in females only

C. develops after age 45

D. is a sex linked disease

A. results in weak, atrophied muscles

Fragile X disease tends to result in ________.

A. miscarriage

B. mental impairment

C. sterility

D. neutral gender

B. mental impairment

Tay Sachs disease my be prevented by _______.

A. radiation treatments

B. genetic counseling

C. diet

D. vaccine

B. genetic counseling

Which chromosome is associated with leukemia?

21

Polydactyly suggests________.

A. recessive genes

B. extra fingers or toes

C. webbed fingers

D. multifactorial events

B. extra fingers or toes

What statement is TRUE?

A. hemophiliacs are also color blind

B. males normally suffer sex linked disorders

C. all genes are equal

D. dominant genes will eventually rule

B. males normally suffer sex linked disorders

What autosomal dominant disease causes atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease?

A. galactosemia

B.familial hypercholesterolemia

C. hermachromtosis

D. Cri Du Chat

B. familial hypercholesterolemia