Bone & Joint Midterm 2 Review

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59 Terms

1
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Still's Disease refers to which arthropathy?

Classic Systemic Arthritis

3 multiple choice options

2
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True or false, most forms of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are seronegative?

True

3
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Which is not a symptom of Still's Disease?

loss of appetite

3 multiple choice options

4
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Which form of JRA would be diagnosed if 3 joints were affected?

pauciarticular arthritis

3 multiple choice options

5
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Which form of JRA occur most commonly in the knee and present with inflammation of eye?

pauciarticular JRA

3 multiple choice options

6
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How many joints must be affected for a polyarticular JRA diagnosis?

>4

3 multiple choice options

7
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What demographic is most affected by Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

women of childbearing age

3 multiple choice options

8
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What is a hallmark lab finding of SLE?

FANA

3 multiple choice options

9
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What is the leading cause of death in SLE patients?

kidney failure

3 multiple choice options

10
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What deformity is most common in SLE patients?

reversible and non-rigid

3 multiple choice options

11
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What type of tissue is affected by scleroderma?

connective

12
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Which of the following is not a component of CREST?

butterfly rash

3 multiple choice options

13
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What is the leading cause of death in scleroderma patients?

impaired gas exchange

3 multiple choice options

14
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Which of the following are the most common locations of scleroderma? PATA

fingers, knees

3 multiple choice options

15
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Which immunoglobulin is elevated in scleroderma?

IgG

3 multiple choice options

16
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Which of the following is not one of the most common seronegative arthropathies (PEAR)?

rheumatoid arthritis

3 multiple choice options

17
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Which of the following are AKAs for Ankylosing Spondylitis (AS)? PATA

bechterew's disease, marie strumpell disease

3 multiple choice options

18
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What is the hallmark lab finding of AS?

HLA B27+

3 multiple choice options

19
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True or false, typically AS starts at the top of the spine and works its way down?

False

20
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Which of the following is not a name sign of AS in the SI joint?

romanus lesion

3 multiple choice options

21
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What is a term for vertical bridging of a vertebra due to ligament ossification?

syndesmophyte

3 multiple choice options

22
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What are the different name signs of AS in the spine?

carrot stick fracture,

dagger sign,

romans lesion,

shiny corner sign,

trolley track sign,

anderson lesion

23
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Why can AS be a contra-indication to upper cervical rotatory adjustments?

because it causes atlanto-axial instability

3 multiple choice options

24
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Which of the following is not an extra-spinal complication of AS?

mitral regurgitation

3 multiple choice options

25
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Which seronegative arthropathy has the hallmark extra-skeletal feature of "silver scales and pitted nails"?

psoriatic arthritis

3 multiple choice options

26
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Which of the following is not name sign of PA on X-ray?

overhanging margin

3 multiple choice options

27
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What is the name sign for enthesopathy of the calcaneus due to reactive arthritis?

lover's heel

3 multiple choice options

28
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Which of the following is not member of the classic triad of reactive arthritis?

cholecystitis

3 multiple choice options

29
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Which diseases can lead to enteropathic arthritis? PATA

ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease

3 multiple choice options

30
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Which seronegative arthropathies present with bilaterally symmetrical sacroilitis?

ankylosing spondylitis

3 multiple choice options

31
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Which seronegative arthropathies present with non-marginal syndesmophytes? PATA

psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis

3 multiple choice options

32
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Which gender is more affected by PEAR arthropathies?

male

33
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What type of crystal is deposited in joints affected by gout?

monosodium urate

3 multiple choice options

34
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What is the characteristic mass of gout?

tophi

3 multiple choice options

35
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What is the most common location of gout?

big toe

36
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What is the name sign associated with gout?

overhanging margin

3 multiple choice options

37
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Which dietary component would not contribute to gout formation?

fresh fruits/veggies

3 multiple choice options

38
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What are the AKAs of CPPD?

chondrocalcinosis, pseudo gout, calcium phosphate deposition disease

3 multiple choice options

39
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Which of the following is not one of most common locations of CPPD?

shoulder

3 multiple choice options

40
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In a patient with OA-like (osteoarthritis-like) changes seen in the shoulder, what condition should you suspect?

CPPD

3 multiple choice options

41
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True or false, primary tumors are not normally found on the axial skeleton?

True

42
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True or false, secondary tumors typically originate in connective tissue while primary tumors originate in epithelial tissue?

False (primary = bone = CT, secondary = organ and can metastasize to bone)

43
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Acral metastasis refers to secondary tumors that develop where?

past elbow or knee

3 multiple choice options

44
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Which of the following is the most common bone malignancy?

metastasis

3 multiple choice options

45
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Being spread via Batson's venous plexus is the reason why secondary tumor's are most common where?

axial skeleton

3 multiple choice options

46
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True or false, metastatic carcinoma is usually blastic in nature?

False (destroys, not builds)

47
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Which of the following is not an AKA of pathological compression fracture?

carrot stick vertebra

3 multiple choice options

48
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Which of the following is not a common cause of vertebral compression fracture?

osteochondroma

3 multiple choice options

49
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Which of the following lab findings indicates prostate metastasis?

acid phosphatase

3 multiple choice options

50
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Which of the following name signs of metastasis can be found on X-ray? PATA

ivory vertebra, winking owl sign, pathological compression fracture

3 multiple choice options

51
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How can you distinguish pedicle agonies from metastatic pedicle destruction?

opposite pedicle will hypertrophy

3 multiple choice options

52
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What is the most common primary malignant bone tumor?

multiple myeloma

3 multiple choice options

53
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What is a name sign of multiple myeloma?

raindrop skull

3 multiple choice options

54
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Which of the following has "mottled calcification" in its tumor matrix?

chondrosarcoma

3 multiple choice options

55
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Which tumor arises from mesenchymal cells of the medullary cavity?

osteochondroma

3 multiple choice options

56
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Which part of the bone does Ewing's sarcoma typically effect?

diaphysis

3 multiple choice options

57
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Which primary bone tumors typically effect younger individuals?

osteosarcoma, ewing's sarcoma

3 multiple choice options

58
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Which of the following is an AKA of osteochondroma?

exostosis

3 multiple choice options

59
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What type of osteochondroma is a "coat hanger exostosis"?

pedunculate

2 multiple choice options