ATPL (Philippines) - Navigation 3

1. When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is

A. 180 knots IAS.

B. 200 knots TAS.

C. 200 knots IAS.

C. 200 knots IAS.

2. A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called

A. Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

B. Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA)

C. Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)

C. Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)

3. An off-route altitude which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called

A. Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA).

B. OROCA.

C. Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).

B. OROCA.

4. What type navigation system is Inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position

A. from information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data.

B. from radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.

C. by signals from self-contained gyros and accelerometers.

C. by signals from self-contained gyros and accelerometers.

5. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by

A. stating "Have Numbers."

B. stating "Have Weather."

C. repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

C. repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

6. An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.

B. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area.

C. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

C. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

7. During a LORAN approach the receiver must detect a lost signal, a signal blink within:

A. 5 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event.

B. 10 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event.

C. 15 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event.

B. 10 seconds of the occurrence and warn the pilot of the event.

8. Precipitation static problems caused by defective dischargers may include

A. complete loss of VHF communications, 30 degree compass errors, high-pitched audio squeals, and erratic instrument readings.

B. complete loss of UHF communications, 50 degree compass errors, low-pitched audio squeals, and limited instrument readouts.

C. little interference in VHF communications, 20 degree compass errors, medium-pitched audio squeals, and negligible instrument indication changes.

A. complete loss of VHF communications, 30 degree compass errors, high-pitched audio squeals, and erratic instrument readings.

9. Under the stabilized approach concept, what is the maximum acceptable descent rate during the final stages of an approach?

A. 1,000' per minute for precision and 1,200' per minute for non-precision.

B. 1,200' per minute above 1,000' AGL and 500' per minute below 1,000' AGL for all approaches.

C. 1,000' per minute for either precision or non-precision.

C. 1,000' per minute for either precision or non-precision.

10. When flying an aircraft with advanced avionics

A. the pilot should fly by engaging the autopilot as first choice.

B. the pilot should know what autopilot modes are engaged.

C. engaging the autopilot is the safe flight control activation.

B. the pilot should know what autopilot modes are engaged.

11. You notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated. You suspect

A. your VHF receiver is inoperative.

B. your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone.

C. the radio is performing a self-test function.

B. your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone.

12. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?

A. High altitudes close to the VORTAC.

B. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC.

C. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

A. High altitudes close to the VORTAC.

13. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?

A. 0 DME miles.

B. 2 DME miles.

C. 2.3 DME miles.

B. 2 DME miles.

14. What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?

A. A test signal, "TESTING," is sent every 30 seconds.

B. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag would appear.

C. The identifier would be removed.

C. The identifier would be removed.

15. Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?

A. Coded identification T-E-S-T.

B. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag might appear.

C. An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

A. Coded identification T-E-S-T.

16. The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is

A. 265 knots.

B. 230 knots.

C. 156 knots.

A. 265 knots.

17. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is

A. 210 knots.

B. 230 knots.

C. 265 knots.

C. 265 knots.

18. Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is

A. 200 knots.

B. 265 knots.

C. 230 knots.

C. 230 knots.

19. What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 ft. MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?

A. 265 knots.

B. 230 knots.

C. 250 knots.

A. 265 knots.

20. Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airports should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?

A. 250 knots.

B. 260 knots.

C. 230 knots.

C. 230 knots.

21. When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?

A. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

B. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less.

C. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

A. 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.

22. When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed

A. 1 minute.

B. 1-1/2 minutes.

C. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

B. 1-1/2 minutes.

23. When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?

A. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first.

B. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage.

C. When abeam the holding fix.

C. When abeam the holding fix.

24. What functions are provided by ILS?

A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle.

B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle.

C. Guidance, range, and visual information.

C. Guidance, range, and visual information.

25. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?

A. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz.

B. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.

C. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

B. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.

26. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?

A. Inner marker.

B. Middle compass locator.

C. Outer compass locator.

C. Outer compass locator.

27. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?

A. Inner marker.

B. Middle compass locator.

C. Outer compass locator.

B. Middle compass locator.

28. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?

A. A series of two dot combinations and a white marker beacon light.

B. Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second and a white marker beacon light.

C. A series of two dash combinations and a white marker beacon light.

A. A series of two dot combinations and a white marker beacon light.

29. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?

A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.

B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.

C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.

30. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?

A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second identified as a high-pitched tone.

B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second identified as a low-pitched tone.

C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second identified as an intermediate tone.

C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second identified as an intermediate tone.

31. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?

A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.

B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.

C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.

32. If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative,

A. the RVR required to begin the approach is increased by 20%.

B. the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet.

C. the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

C. the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

33. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are

A. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.

B. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.

C. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

B. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.

34. What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum?

A. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.

B. RVR 1,000 feet.

C. RVR 700 feet.

C. RVR 700 feet.

35. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?

A. SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.

B. SDF - offset from runway plus 4°, ILS - aligned with runway.

C. SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

A. SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.

36. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?

A. Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR.

B. RCLS and REIL.

C. Each required ground component.

C. Each required ground component.

37. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glideslope, marker beacons, and approach lights?

A. Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR.

B. All of the required ground components.

C. RCLS and REIL.

B. All of the required ground components.

38. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?

A. Radar and RVR.

B. RCLS and REIL.

C. HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

C. HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

39. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?

A. LDA - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.

B. LDA - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway.

C. LDA - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

B. LDA - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway.

40. Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glide path?

A. 5 times groundspeed in knots.

B. 8 times groundspeed in knots.

C. 10 times groundspeed in knots.

A. 5 times groundspeed in knots.

41. What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?

A. ASR and PAR.

B. The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

C. Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

B. The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

42. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?

A. When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa.

B. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.

C. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

B. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.

43. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

A. On tower frequency.

B. On approach control frequency.

C. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

A. On tower frequency.

44. When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?

A. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.

B. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.

C. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

A. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.

45. Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

A. an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways.

B. a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.

C. a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.

B. a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.

46. Precision runway monitoring requires

A. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios.

B. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers.

C. detailed performance during the "decision region": 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.

A. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios.

47. Utilizing PRM may require

A. monitoring two communication frequencies.

B. specialized training and monitoring 2 ILS frequencies.

C. tracking parameters within decision region to 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glide slope displayed.

A. monitoring two communication frequencies.