pharm final

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When combined with other drugs, the effectiveness of certain drugs (such as carbamazepine, phenobarbital, rimfampin) is reduced as well as the effectiveness of other drugs. This occurs by:

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1

When combined with other drugs, the effectiveness of certain drugs (such as carbamazepine, phenobarbital, rimfampin) is reduced as well as the effectiveness of other drugs. This occurs by:

stimulating hepatic microsomal enzymes

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2

The cause of death from overdose of any central nervous system depressant is usually?

respiratory depression

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3

A drug that causes xerostomia is:

an anticholinergic agent

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4

All of the following medications may be prescribed as an anticoagulant to persons with valvular heart defects EXCEPT?

Ibuprofen

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5

A patient who had a myocardial infarction 3 years ago is taking a medication to thin his blood, and one to treat hypertension. His blood pressure is 140/88, and he is not allergic to penicillin. What statement is TRUE regarding the patient's need for antibiotic premedication.

The patient does not require premedication

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6

All of the following classes of drugs may be used to treat an allergic reaction except one. What is the EXCEPTION?

antibiotics

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7

Which of the following is the MOST effective antitussive medication?

codeine

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8

Chronic use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories may reduce the effectiveness of:

Calcium channel blockers

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9

An infection in an area can prevent the accumulation of effective concentrations of local anesthetic solution because of:

low tissue pH

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10

Ibuprofen (Motrin) is a useful:

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent

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11

The first-pass effect describes the ________.

metabolism of drugs by the liver

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12

Which of the following actions is NOT a potential side effect of epinephrine?

bronchospasm

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13

What does the therapeutic index indicate?

the margin of safety between the therapeutic and toxic doses

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14

What is the MOST common metabolic emergency in persons with type 1 diabetes mellitus?

hypoglycemia

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15

Which of the following local anesthetics can be administered intravenously to treat cardiac arrhythmias?

lidocaine

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16

Which of the following drugs should the asthmatic patient avoid?

Aspirin-containing medications

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17

Which antibiotic should not be taken within 2 hours of ingesting dairy products?

Tetracycline

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18

In which of the following types of diabetes is insulin always required?

Type 1

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19

Clients receiving antihypertensive drug therapy may experience all of the following adverse reactions EXCEPT

Metallic taste

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20

Mrs. Smith takes one baby aspirin per day to prevent heart attack. She may be at an increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT:

Inflammation

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21

Which of the following may result from an overdose of insulin?

convulsions

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22

From the dental practitioner's point of view, the most important side effect related to valproic acid (Depakote) is:

thrombocytopenia

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23

A patient allergic to lidocaine (Xylocaine) should NOT be given which of the related drugs as an anesthetic?

mepivicaine (Carbocaine)

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24

Which medication is contraindicated in young children?

aspirin

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25

Which medication has been approved by the FDA to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

cabamazepine (Tegretol)

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26

The most common concentration of vasoconstrictor in a local anesthetic solution is:

1:100,000

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27

Epinephrine should be restricted for patients with:

Hypertension

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28

Which organ plays the greatest role in absorption of orally-administered medications?

small intestine

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29

Oral manifestations of fungal infections include all of the following EXCEPT

Drug-influenced gingivitis

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30

The mechanism of action of local anesthetics is to

block nerve conduction by preventing nerve depolarization

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31

An excess of which of the following hormones can be associated with an increased sensitivity to epinephrine?

thyroid

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32

Tetracycline therapy should be avoided in all of the following EXCEPT:

Postmenopausal women

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33

Which of the following is a nonselective beta blocker indicated for the treatment of hypertension?

propranolol (Inderal)

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34

All of the following drugs may result in an increased amount of bleeding during scaling and root planing except one. Which if the EXCEPTION?

acetaminophen

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35

Which medication may increase your risk of bleeding if taken with aspirin?

rivaroxaban (Xarelto)

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36

Which of the following medications can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

Antibiotics

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37

Which of the following should not be given to a person with a history of aspirin hypersensitivity?

Ibuprofen

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38

Which of the following is nitroglycerin's most common side effect?

Severe headache

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39

A patient reports that she is six months pregnant. Which of the following drugs, if prescribed for the client, would lead to a specific type of intrinsic tooth staining in the unborn child?

Tetracycline

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40

Which of the following orally inhaled drugs is used to treat acute asthma attacks?

Albuteral

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41

Diabetes mellitus is actually a group of disorders characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex in which there is excessive production of glucocorticosteroids

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42

Which one of the following drugs has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic and anti-platelet actions?

aspirin

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43

Drugs with teratogenic effects can produce:

An abnormal fetus

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44

The presence or absence of food in the GI tract can reduce the absorption of a drug from 30 percent to as much as 80 percent.

true

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45

If a patient it allergic to penicillin and needs prophylactic antibiotic premedication prior to dental hygiene care, what premedication is the physician or dentist MOST likely to prescribe?

clindamycin

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46

Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) may take which of the following for pain?

Acetaminophen

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47

Which statement about cholinergic receptors is FALSE?

Cholinergic receptors are also known as adrenergic receptors.

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48

Which of the following is a reaction characterized by laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction, and severe hypotension (shock)?

anaphylaxis

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49

What effect can aspirin produce in the body?

GI side effects

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50

Which of the following is an opioid drug that causes CNS depression, sedation and pinpoint pupils?

Heroin

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51

What is the MOST common medical emergencies occurring in the dental setting?

syncope

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52

Which of the following dental drugs often includes sulfite preservatives that may cause sensitivity among asthmatics?

Epinephrine

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53

Which is the first drug of choice indicated in the treatment of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureas (MRSA)?

vancomycin

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54

Which of the following substances can contribute to a patient's stomach ulcers?

aspirin

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55

Clients taking diazepam (Valium) for anxiety should be counseled about all of the following EXCEPT?

Headache

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56

Which of the following is the initial treatment of syncope in a dental office?

position the head lower than the feet

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57

Drugs circulate in the blood bound to ________.

albumin

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58

A diabetic emergency that occurs from a lack of insulin could be reflected by any of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Glucophage

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59

Tylenol with codeine falls into which DEA schedule of controlled substances?

Schedule III

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60

Which would most likely be prescribed for temporal mandibular joint disorder?

Adrenocorticosteroids

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61

Because she is taking aspirin, Mrs. Smith should be counseled regarding all of the following EXCEPT:

headache

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62

Which of the following factors determines the dose of a drug to be administered?

patient's age patient's weight route of administration patient's physical condition

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63

Use of albuterol inhalers can cause:

Xerostomia

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64

A client with an ASA status of _____________ should not receive dental hygiene care.

IV or greater

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65

Which of the following is the drug of choice used to treat an opioid overdose?

naloxone

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66

Lichen planus can be treated topically by which of the following medications?

dexamethasone (Decadron)

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67

Which of the following anti-seizure medications is MOST LIKELY to cause drug-induced gingival enlargement?

Phenytoin

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68

Which antiinfective is prescribed as a subclinical dose to treat periodontal disease?

doxycycline

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69

Prophylactic antibiotic premedication prior to invasive dental or dental hygiene care may be considered for clients with a history of any of the following conditions EXCEPT?

Diabetes mellitus

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70

All of the following need to be listed in the Medical Alert Box on a health history form EXCEPT?

Age

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71

The first line antibiotic to treat ANUG is:

metronidazole

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72

During periodontal debridement, a diabetic patient demonstrates sweating, tachycardia, and confusion. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

administer oral carbohydrate

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73

Your patient was treated for a myocardial infarction three weeks ago. What is the appropriate decision concerning dental hygiene care?

Client should be reappointed due to risk of medical emergency.

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74

The higher the number of the therapeutic index, the more desirable it is, because it indicates that the drug has a wide margin of safety.

true

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75

Persons who have chronic constipation should be given which of the following drugs with caution?

codeine

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76

What is the most common side effect associated with oral hypoglycemic agents (sulfonylrureas) such as glyburide?

Hypoglycemia

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77

If a client with asthma is taking theophylline, which of the following durgs may result in toxicity?

erythromycin

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78

The FDA regulates prescription drugs, but not over-the-counter (OTC) drugs.

false

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79

Which of the following hormones is released in response to hyperglycemia?

insulin

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80

The maximum amount of epinephrine that may be administered to a patient with cardiovascular disease is:

.04 mg

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81

Certain drugs can cause a negative effect on fetal development if taken by a pregnant woman. The term used for this negative effect is: (MO3b)

teratogenic

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82

Which is a histamine-2 antagonist?

ranitidine (Zantac)

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83

Aspirin has all of the following actions EXCEPT?

obundent

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84

Which adverse reaction is commonly associated with opioid analgesics?

sedation

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85

Penicillin's mechanism of action:

destroys the bacterial cell wall

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86

The letters "prn" appearing on a prescription indicate that a medication is to be administered

when needed

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87

Which of the following should be readily made available to alleviate the symptoms of an acute asthmatic attack?

albuterol

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88

Which of the following types of patients would salicylates be a good choice for pain control?

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis

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89

Fungal infections of the oral cavity can develop with systemic administration of all the following EXCEPT?

antipyretics

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90

Which of the following drugs may reduce a person's ability to fight infection and prolong the duration of healing?

prednisone

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91

Current research suggests that antimicrobial agents do each of the following EXCEPT:

increase the specificity of microbes

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92

Oral corticosteroids can cause all of the following conditions that can affect dental health or therapy except

Moon face

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93

Which of the following is not an action of aspirin?

obtundent

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94

All of the following are chronic complication of diabetes EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Hunger, headache, pale moist skin, and feelings of dizziness and weakness

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95

After receiving a local anesthetic injection, the patient experiences anaphylaxis. To treat this condition immediately, you use which drug of choice?

epinephrine

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96

Which of the following is NOT one of the steps involved in the drug cycle?

secretion

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97

Mrs. Smith does not know why she is taking rosiglitazone maleate (Avandia), a prescribed medication. What is the MOST likely reason for Mrs. Smith's prescribed medication?

Type 2 Diabetes

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98

What can be used for prophylactic antibiotic premedication if the client is not allergic to penicillin, but cannot take oral medications?

Ampicillin

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99

Official prescription forms used to prescribe schedule II drugs include all of the following security features except ________.

the physician's DEA number

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100

Tachycardia is characterized by

increase in pulse rate

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