anatomy

Which component of bone tissue makes bone hard?

osteocytes

mineral salts

collagen fibers

canalicul

mineral salts

Identity one function of the organ system illustrated here.

A) regulates water and electrolyte balance

B)produces bile, which is used to break down ingested fats

C)carries fluid from body tissues back to the blood vascular system

D) delivers white blood cells to the body tissues

C) carries fluid from body tissues back to the blood vascular system

Oxygen and hydrogen combine with one another to form water; this is an example of the _______ of organization.

Chemical level

When many molecules come together to form organelles that become compartmentalized into a single structure that works as a unit, you have an example of the______

Cellular level

Muscle fibers are cells that contain actin, myosin, and other accessory proteins. When these cells are collected together, they can all function as a unit, carrying out the shortening capabilities of muscle. When multiple cells with a similar function come together, it is an example of the______

Tissue level

The small intestine contains epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue. The combination of these different tissue types to form one discrete structure is an example of the_______

Organ level

The pituitary gland, adrenal gland, and other hormone-producing organs all work together to help the body send hormones through the blood stream and respond to internal changes. This is an example of the______

Organ system level

Review the descriptions of an organ in Figure 1.1. Use your knowledge from this figure to correctly identify an organ. Which of the following best represents an example at the organ level?

A)Hydrochloric acid B) Enterocytes (cells that line the small intestine) C) Stomach D) Digestive enzymes E) Smooth muscle in the large intestine

C) stomach

Which of the following is true regarding the anatomical position?

A) The person is seated with head facing forward.

B) The feet are placed at exactly 45 degrees outward.

C) Directional terminology refers to the body in this position.

D) It is a visual reference point only used in the various imaging techniques.

E) The palms face posteriorly with the thumbs pointed toward the body.

C) Directional terminology refers to the body in this position.

Use the illustration to identify the abdominal quadrants in which the stomach is located.

A) right upper quadrant and left upper quadrant B)left lower quadrant and right lower quadrant c)right upper quadrant and right lower quadrant D) left upper quadrant and left lower quadrant

A) right upper quadrant and left upper quadrant

Identify the membranes that line the cavity surrounding the lungs.

A) parietal and visceral peritonea B) pulmonary membranes C) serous pericardium D) parietal and visceral pleura

D) parietal and visceral pleura

The sternal region is __________ to the axillary region.

A) lateral B) medial C) posterior D) superior E) proximal

B) medial

Bones lie __________ to muscles.

Deep

The __________ region of the body consists of the head and trunk.

Axial

The right nostril and right ear are __________.

Ipsilateral

Patients with appendicitis often complain of abdominal pain in the right lower abdominopelvic quadrant. The appendix itself is in the__________.

A)right lumbar region B)right iliac region C) umbilical region D) hypogastric region

B) right iliac region

Which advanced imaging technique is capable of distinguishing body tissues on the basis of differences in water content, and makes bones "invisible"?

A)positron emission tomography (PET) B)digital subtraction angiography (DSA) C) fluoroscopy D)magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) E)Sonography

D) magnetic resonance imaging

What is the advantage of functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) over positron emission tomography (PET)?

A) fMRI pinpoints smaller brain areas, does not use radioactive tracers, and works faster.

B)fMRI is better for observing bones.fMRI uses radioactive tracers rather than magnets.

C)fMRI uses sound waves rather than radioactive tracers.

D)fMRI is better for determining the age of a fetus. Submit

A) fMRI pinpoints smaller brain areas, does not use radioactive tracers, and works faster.

Mrs. Nguyen was sitting in the front passenger seat and hit her head on the windshield. Doctors suspect internal bleeding, which could be putting pressure on her brain. Which of the following medical imaging techniques would be best for quickly locating any bleeding?

A) sonography B) positron emission tomography (pet) c) traditional x ray D) computed tomography

D)computed tomography

Identify the macromolecules that form the two layers of the plasma membrane

A) cholesterol B) glycoproteins C) phosophilids D) glycolipids

C)phospholipids

Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?

A) It provides a complete barrier to all water-soluble proteins, but not fat-soluble proteins.

B)It provides a complete barrier to all fat-soluble proteins, but not water-soluble proteins.

C)It does not allow material to be transported outside the cell.

D)It acts as a receptor to bind specific molecules arriving from outside the cell.

D)It acts as a receptor to bind specific molecules arriving from outside the cell.

The role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is to __________.

A)manufacture ribosomal subunits

B)manufacture proteins for intracellular and extracellular functions

C)fuse with phagosomes; empty their own enzymes into vesicles and digest their contents

D)produce steroid hormones and aid in drug detoxification

E)pull organelles along through the cytoplasm

D)produce steroid hormones and aid in drug detoxification

__________ are membranous sacs containing acid hydrolases and are sites of intracellular digestion.

Lysosomes

Which organelle works with the rough ER to package and ship new proteins to appropriate sites within the cell or for sectioning out of the cell?

A) Golgi apparatus B) Ribosomes CMitochondria smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A) Golgi apparatus

Which of the listed organelles are not bound by a membrane or membranes?

A) smooth ER and microfilaments B) Golgi apparatus and mitochondria C) microtubules and lysosomes D) intermediate filaments and ribosomes

D) intermediate filaments and ribosomes

The assembly of proteins from amino acids by ribosomes is called __________.

Translation

Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine are subunits of the DNA's double helix called __________.

A) chromosomes B) nucleosomes C) nucleotides D) histones E) telomeres

C) nucleotides

Extended chromatin is where DNA's genetic code is copied onto messenger RNA molecules in a process called __________.

A) transconfiguration B) transcription C) translation D) inversion E) autolysis

B) transcription

What is the importance of chromatin being condensed into chromosomes during cell division?

A) Transcription takes place while chromosomes are condensed.

B) This is how the Golgi apparatus sends transport vesicles from the cis-face to the trans-face of the apparatus

C) It helps strands keep from tangling and breaking as chromosomes move.

D)It is easier for replication of DNA to take place.

C) It helps strands keep from tangling and breaking as chromosomes move.

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA duplication, or replication, take place?

A) Metaphase B) Interphase C) Prophase D) Anaphase

B) interphase

When a double helix of DNA is replicated, two complete helices are formed. Together, these helices are called sister __________.

A) centromeres B) telomeres C) chromosomes D) chromatids

D) chromatids

During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids line up at the center of the cell?

A) Metaphase B) Anaphase C) Telophase D) Prophase

A) metaphase

During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids move apart?

A) Telophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Prophase

Anaphase

During which phase of mitosis do nuclear envelopes and the nucleoli reappear?

A)Anaphase B) Telophase C) Metaphase D)Prophase

B) telophase

During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear?

A) Anaphase B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Telophase

B)prophase

What is the name of the process by which the cytoplasm divides in two?

A) Segregation B)Microtubule shortening C) Cytoplasmic streaming D) Cytokinesis

D) cytokinesis

What occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

A) synthesis of enzymes needed for cell division

B) synthesis of DNA in preparation for cell division

C) synthesis of centrioles and mitotic spindle as the cell prepares for mitosis

D) synthesis of proteins and other metabolic molecules necessary for normal cell functions

B) synthesis of DNA in preparation for cell division

__________ is the series of events during which replicated DNA of the original cell is parceled out into two new cells.

Synthesis

Which is representative of early prophase?

A) Chromosomes condense as sister chromatid pairs. B) The chromatids separate at the centromere. C) The cell membrane dissolves. D) The chromatids return to chromatin form.

A) chromosomes condense as sister chromatid pairs

Which is representative of late prophase?

A) Centrosomes begin to separate B) Attachment of chromatid pairs to spindle microtubules C) Disappearance of nuclear envelope and migration of nucleoli to poles of cell. D) Chromosomes begin to condense as bar-like shapes

B) Attachment of chromatid pairs to spindle microtubules

Which phrase below correctly describes metaphase?

A) Sister chromatids are aligned at the metaphase plate B) The centromeres are positioned continually along the spindle C) The chromosomes in a sister chromatid begin to separate from one another D) Centrosomes are attached at the metaphase plate

A) Sister chromatids are aligned at the metaphase plate

Which statement below is NOT a characteristic of epithelia?

A) Epithelia contain many cells closely packed together with little extracellular material.

B) Epithelia is innervated; it contains nerve endings.

C) Epithelia have a "free" apical region and a basal region adjacent to underlying connective tissue.

D) Epithelia are highly vascularized.

D) Epithelia are highly vascularized.

Which type of cell junction is also referred to as an anchoring junction?

A) Desmosome B) Tight junction C) Adhesion proteins D) Gap junction

A) Desmosome

The lateral surfaces of epithelial cells are characterized by _____.

A) specialized cell junctions B) cilia C) microvillia basal D) lamina

A) specialized cell junctions

Which of the following statements describing cilia is false?

A) Cilia increase the apical surface area of an epithelial tissue to maximize transport across the surface membrane.

B) Cilia produce a propulsive thrust to create the one-way flow of fluid over an epithelial surface.

C) Cilia contain microtubules.

D) At the base of each cilium is a centriole, called a basal body. Submit

A) Cilia increase the apical surface area of an epithelial tissue to maximize transport across the surface membrane.

How are stratified epithelia named?

A) according to the shape of the cells in their apical layer

B) by the shape of the cells in the middle two layers of the particular epithelium

C) according to the shape of the cells in their basal layer

D) by whether the cells are star-shaped, transitional, or pseudostratified

E) None of the responses lists how stratified epithelia are named.

A) according to the shape of the cells in their apical layer

Sebaceous glands are classified as which type of gland?

A) compound tubular B) simple alveolar C) simple branched alveolar D) simple branched tubular E) simple tubula

C) simple branched alveolar

The role of tight junctions is __________.

A) to prevent molecules from passing between cells B) to attach actin microfilaments to bind adjacent cells C) intercellular communication D) All of the listed response are correct.

A) to prevent molecules from passing between cells

Connective tissue proper includes which of the following tissue types?

A) areolar connective tissue and reticular connective tissue

B) blood connective tissue

C) fibrocartilage and hyaline cartilage connective tissue

D) spongy bone and compact bone

E) All of the listed responses are categories of connective tissue proper

A) areolar connective tissue and reticular connective tissue

What is the importance of the fat in adipose tissue located around the heart, around lymph nodes, and in bone marrow (as individual fat cells)?

A) These fat deposits are localized areas of brown fat.

B) These fat deposits serve local nutrient needs of highly active organs.

c) These areas of fat do not serve an important function around these tissues.

D) These fat deposits are for the general nutrient needs of the entire body.

B) These fat deposits serve local nutrient needs of highly active organs.

__________ are branched and interdigitate at specialized cell junctions called intercalated discs.

A) Cardiac muscle cells B) All connective tissue cells C) Skeletal muscle cells D) Smooth muscle cells E) All epithelial cells

A) Cardiac muscle cells

Which symptom of inflammation is NOT paired with its source?

A) pain: release of inflammatory chemicals affect nerve endings directly

B) swelling: accumulation of fluid in connective tissue

C) pain: pressure of fluid on nerve endings

D) heat: due to increased blood flow

E) redness: blood leaking into surrounding tissues

F) All of the listed responses are correctly paired.

E) redness: blood leaking into surrounding tissues

Why is tissue repair less efficient in the elderly than in younger people?

A) There are no stem cells remaining to allow for tissue repair.

B) Tissues divide uncontrollably, usually leading to cancer.

C) The amount of collagen in the body declines

.D) Elderly people always eat too much protein, resulting in poor tissue repair.

C) The amount of collagen in the body declines

The functions of simple cuboidal epithelial tissue include which of the following?

A) absorption, secretion, and ion transport

B) secretion of mucus and/or enzymes

C) protection and distension

D) secretion and absorption

E) diffusion, filtration, and secretion

D) secretion and absorption

What is the role of goblet cells in pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue of the upper respiratory tract?

A) protection of underlying tissues

B) propel mucus

C) increase surface area for absorption

D) secrete mucin

E) formation of centrioles

D) secrete mucin

How would you distinguish pseudostratified columnar epithelium from all other tissues?

A) it is technically not a tissue, because it is "pseudostratified"

B) it is ciliated and composed of cuboidal cells and columnar cells, with some nucleated and some anucleate cells

C) it is composed of a single layer of cells of varying heights; not all cells reach the free surface; and nuclei are at varying heights within cells

D) it is the only tissue found in both the kidney tubules and in the kidney glomeruli, so if you view a kidney section you can be sure it is pseudostratified columnar epithelium

C) it is composed of a single layer of cells of varying heights; not all cells reach the free surface; and nuclei are at varying heights within cells

The type of cartilage that can withstand the strongest compression and tension forces is

A) calcified cartilage B) fibrocartilage. C) hyaline cartilage D) elastic cartilage.

B) fibrocartilage.

The type of cartilage that forms the costal cartilages at the ends of the ribs is

A) calcified cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) hyaline cartilage. D) fibrocartilage.

C) hyaline cartilage.

What are two locations in the body where fibrocartilage is located?

A) articular cartilage of long bones and costal cartilage

B) annulus fibrosis of intervertebral discs and menisci of the knee

C) embryonic skeleton and many respiratory structures

D) epiglottis and the cartilage of the outer ear (pinna)

B) annulus fibrosis of intervertebral discs and menisci of the knee

In appositional growth, chondrocytes within cartilage divide and secrete new matrix.

True False

False

Cartilage is strong in resisting twisting and bending but weak in resisting tension and compression.

True False

False

Which component of bone tissue makes bone hard?

A) osteocytes B) mineral salts C) collagen fibers D) canaliculi

B) mineral salts

During endochondral ossification, which of the listed types of tissue is replaced by bone?

A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) mesenchyme D) hyaline cartilage E) fibrocartilage

D) hyaline cartilage

Put the steps of endochondral ossification in the correct order. 1: Formation of medullary cavity and appearance of secondary ossification centers 2: Cavitation of hyaline cartilage within the cartilage model 3: Invasion of internal cavities by periosteal bud and spongy bone formation 4: Ossification of epiphyses; hyaline cartilage remains at epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages 5: Formation of bone collar around hyaline cartilage model

A) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3

C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

E) None of the listed responses is correct.

D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

Osteoblasts originate from what type of precursor cells?

A) osteoclasts B) mesenchyme cells C) hematopoietic stem cells D) bone marrow

B) mesenchyme cells

Which hormone modulates the effects of growth hormone to ensure that the skeleton remains proportional?

A) sex hormones (androgens and estrogens)

B) thyroid hormone

C) growth hormone

D) parathyroid hormone

E) None of the listed responses is correct.

B) thyroid hormone

Which of the following statements is/are true of epiphyseal plates throughout bone growth?

A) The epiphyseal plates grow longer so that the bones contain proportionally more cartilage until late adolescence.

B) The epiphyseal plates are longest early in childhood, but as they are replaced by bone tissue, they get shorter.

C) Secretion of osteoid takes place in both osteocytes and osteoblasts at the epiphyseal plates during early bone growth.

D) Division of osteoblasts in the proliferation zone causes the epiphyseal plates to be the strongest region of bone.

E) Cartilage is replaced by bone tissue on the diaphysis side as quickly as it grows, causing the epiphyseal plates to maintain a constant thickness.

E) Cartilage is replaced by bone tissue on the diaphysis side as quickly as it grows, causing the epiphyseal plates to maintain a constant thickness.

The types of fractures that are common in children are __________.

A) spiral and comminuted

B) depression

C) compression and comminuted

D) epiphyseal and greenstick

D) epiphyseal and greenstick

he kneecap, or patella, is an example of

A) calcified cartilage.

B) an irregular bone.

C) a sesamoid bone.

D) a flat bone.

C) a sesamoid bone.

The primary center of ossification

A) is in the diaphysis.

B) occurs in the 4-week embryo

C) is in the epiphysis.

D) is in membrane bones but not in endochondral bones.

A) is in the diaphysis.

A hormone that increases the bone-degrading activity of osteoclasts is

A) thyroid hormone

B) an androgen (male sex hormone).

C) parathyroid hormone.

D) an estrogen (female sex hormone).

C) parathyroid hormone.

Cartilage repairs slowly after adolescence because

A) the cartilage matrix becomes mineralized.

B) the perichondrium thickens, preventing diffusion of gasses and nutrients.

C) chondrocytes no longer are able to divide and secrete new matrix.

D) collagen synthesis ceases.

C) chondrocytes no longer are able to divide and secrete new matrix.

Which factor will decrease the rate of bone resorption?

A) inadequate vitamin D intake B) prolonged bed rest C) mechanical stress D) long zero-gravity exposure

C) mechanical stress

Flat bones include all of the following examples, EXCEPT __________.

A) ribs B) scapulae C) wrist bones D) sternum

C) wrist bones

Osteocytes, residing within lacunae, are connected via canaliculi

True False

True

Epiphyseal plates typically close at the time an infant learns to walk. True False

False

Which of the following is not a function of the bony skeleton?

A) transmission of muscular forces by acting as levers

B) production of blood cells

C) storage of parathyroid hormone

D) support and protection

C) storage of parathyroid hormone

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the

A) chondrocyte. B) chondroblasts C) osteoblast. D) osteoclast.

C) osteoblast.

In the repair of a simple fracture, the step that follows formation of a hematoma is

A) inflammation. B) bone remodeling. C) formation of a bony callus. D) formation of fibrocartilaginous callus.

D) formation of fibrocartilaginous callus.

Which statement about growth of long bones is false?

A) The epiphyses are pushed further from the center of the diaphysis.

B) The epiphyseal plates remain a constant thickness during growth.

C) The bone cannot grow longer once the epiphyseal plates are ossified.

D) The diaphysis becomes progressively thinner as the bone lengthens.

D) The diaphysis becomes progressively thinner as the bone lengthens.

How long after a fracture occurs does a bony callus begin to form?

A) within a few days B) 2 months c) within 1 week D) many months

c) within 1 week

A long bone may be characterized by two diaphyses and one epiphysis. True False

False

All of the following openings are part of or within the temporal bone EXCEPT the __________.

A) foramen lacerum B) internal acoustic meatuS C) external acoustic meatus D) carotid canal E) foramen rotundum

E) foramen rotundum

Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI pass through the __________.

A) carotid canal B) superior orbital fissure c) jugular foramen D) cribriform plate E) foramen spinosum

c) jugular foramen

Which list contains only bones that form part of the orbit of the eye?

A) lacrimal, nasal, and sphenoid bones B) nasal, lacrimal, and temporal bones C) sphenoid, zygomatic, and temporal bones D) frontal, ethmoid, and lacrimal bones E) palatine, nasal, and maxillary bones

D) frontal, ethmoid, and lacrimal bones

Which of these bones has a foramen that encircles the superior aspect of the spinal cord?

A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid

C) occipital

Which of these bones together with the maxilla, functions in chewing?

A) mandible B) sphenoid C) occipital D) temporal E) ethmoid

A) mandible

Which of these bones has both the cribriform plate and the crista galli?

A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) temporal D) mandible E) occipital

A) ethmoid

Which of these bones has "wings" and a body?

A)temporal B) sphenoid C)ethmoid D) mandible E)occipital

B) sphenoid

Which bones are divided by the sagittal suture?

A) temporal and parietal B) occipital and parietal C) right and left parietal bones D) frontal and parietal

C) right and left parietal bones

Which of the facial bones listed below is unpaired?

A) lacrimal B) vomer C) zygomatic D) palatine

B) vomer

Which of the bones listed below is not a facial bone?

A)lacrimal B) parietal C) zygomatic D) mandible

B) parietal

Which cranial bones meet at the lambdoid suture?

A)parietal and temporal B) parietal and occipital C) frontal and parietal D) frontal and nasal

B) parietal and occipital

What is the function of the curvatures of the vertebral column?

A) support for weight bearing B) attachment of muscles and ligament C) protection of the spinal cord D) increased flexibility

D) increased flexibility

Which bone articulates with the dens?

A) axis B) occipital C) temporal D) atlas

D) atlas

When in life does the lumbar curvature of the vertebral column appear?

A) at the time of birthin B) the 2-month embryo C) in the toddler (about 1 year old) D) in old age

C) in the toddler (about 1 year old)

The manubrium articulates with all of the bones listed below except

A) rib 2. B) the xiphoid C) .the clavicle. D) rib 1.

B) the xiphoid

Which type of movement is not possible between the lumbar vertebrae?

A) lateral flexion B) extension C) circumduction D) flexion

C) circumduction

The jugular notch lies at the level of the __________.

A) disc between the second and third thoracic vertebrae B) seventh cervical vertebra C) ninth thoracic vertebra D) disc between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae

A) disc between the second and third thoracic vertebrae

Why are the inferior two pairs of ribs considered floating ribs?

A) They attach indirectly to the sternum by way of the costal cartilage above it.

B) They have no anterior attachment.

C) They are absent in some people, thus the inferior two ribs are "floating" in number.

D) They are not attached to any bony structure.

B) They have no anterior attachment.