HN204 Midterm Questions

Which of the following muscles is the deepest layer of the abdominal wall?
a. Rectus abdominis
b. External oblique
c. Transversus abdominis
d. Internal oblique

Which of the following muscles is the deepest layer of the abdominal wall?
a. Rectus abdominis
b. External oblique
c. Transversus abdominis
d. Internal oblique

Transversus abdominis

Which muscle elevates the first two ribs?
a. Scalenes
b. Diaphragm
c. External intercostals
d. Internal intercostals

Scalenes

This bone sits directly under the third toe of the foot.
a) Intermediate Cuneiform
b) Lateral Cuneiform
c) Talus
d) Navicular

Lateral Cuneiform

Which quadricep muscles share the same insertion point at the patella and tibial tuberosity?
A. Satorius and vastus intermedius
B. Vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius and rectus femoris
C. Pectineus, tensor fascia lata, and sartorius
D. Adductor longus and adductor magnus

Vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius and rectus femoris

Which muscle is apart of the quadriceps femoris?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Rectus femoris
C. Semitendinosus
D. Semimembranosus

Rectus femoris

Which of the following muscles is responsible for flexing the forearm at the elbow?
a) Biceps brachii b) Triceps brachii
c) Deltoid
d) Latissimus dors

Biceps brachii

Which of the following statements is a proper distinction between internal and external
intercostal muscles?
a. Internal intercostals originate at the inferior border of the rib while the external
intercostals originate at the superior border.
b. The external intercostals insert at the inferior border of the rib whereas the internal
intercostals insert at the superior border.
c. The external intercostals work to elevate the rib cage and the internal intercostals
work to depress it.
d. The internal intercostals elevate the rib cage and the external intercostals depress it

The external intercostals work to elevate the rib cage and the internal intercostals
work to depress it.

Which of the following describes a transverse plane?
a) Divides the body into front and back portions
b) Divides the body into left and right portions
c) Rotates the body medially
d) Divides the body into upper and lower portion

Divides the body into upper and lower portion

Which muscle is not a part of the hamstrings?
a. Semitendinosus
b. Gracilis
c. Biceps femoris
d. Semimembranosus

Gracilis

Which of the following options is located on the posterior surface of the scapula?
A) Coracoid process
B) Infraspinous fossa
C) Subscapular fossa
D) Glenoid cavity

Infraspinous fossa

What is a unique characteristic of the cervical vertebrae that is not seen in either thoracic or
lumbar vertebrae?
A. Contains transverse costal facet
B. Presence of transverse foramen
C. Possess short spinous process
D. Absence of vertebral body

Presence of transverse foramen

What type of procedure results in easing pressure on the spinal cord or the nerve roots?
a) Hysterectomy
b) Laminectomy
c) Cholecystectomy
d) Hysterectomy

Laminectomy

What directional term does the motion of opening your mouth describe? Name the major bone
that allows this action to happen too.
a. protraction, zygomatic bone
b. protraction, mandible
c. depression, mandible
d. protraction, maxilla

depression, mandible

Which of the following statements about the sphenoid bone is true?
A) It forms the anterior portion of the nasal septum.
B) It articulates with all other cranial bones.
C) It contains the external auditory meatus.
D) It houses the occipital condyles.

It articulates with all other cranial bones.

Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for compressing the abdominal cavity and providing trunk stabilization?
A) Transversus abdominis
B) Rectus abdominis
C) External oblique
D) Internal intercostal

Transversus abdominis

Which of the following structures are responsible for accumulating melanin?

a) Melanocytes
b) Melanosomes
c) Lysosomes
d) Kupffer cells

Melanosomes

Where is the origin of the levator scapulae?
A) Transverse processes of C5-C7
B) Spinous processes of C1-C4
C) Transverse processes of C1-C4
D) Spinous processes of T1-T3

Transverse processes of C1-C4

What is the prime mover for thigh flexion?
a) Rectus femoris
b) Iliopsoas
c) Tensor fasciae latae
d) Quadriceps femoris

Iliopsoas

Dendritic cells are immune cells on the skin that detect pathogens and allow for an immune
response to occur. In which situation are dendritic cells most necessary?
a. For regulating blood sugar levels
b. For fighting a virus
c. For healing a scar
d. For regulating digestion

For fighting a virus

Where does Buccinator insert?
a) Mandible
b) Maxilla
c) Zygomatic process
d) Orbicularis oris

Orbicularis oris

Which of the following bones is part of the human arm?
A) Femur B) Clavicle
C) Humerus
D) Tibia

Humerus

Which of the following layers of skin below is only present in thick skin?
a) Stratum corneum
b) Stratum lucidum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum basale

Stratum lucidum

Which of the following muscles is the most lateral in a human positioned in the anatomical
position?
a) Abductor pollicis longus
b) Extensor digiti minimi
c) Pectoralis major
d) Piriformis

Abductor pollicis longus

What three muscles meet to make up the triangle of auscultation?
A. The trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and scapula
B. Teres Major, teres minor and deltoid
C. The trapezius, teres major and latissimus dorsi
D. The latissimus dorsi, the rhomboid major and scapula

The trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and scapula

Which of the following structures serves as a primary stabilizer of the wrist and is
involved in the flexion of the wrist?
A) Thenar eminence
B) Hypothenar eminence
C) Flexor retinaculum
D) Anatomical snuff box

Flexor retinaculum

Which of the following structures is directly involved in hematopoiesis (the production of blood
cells)?

A) Epiphyseal plate
B) Red marrow
C) Periosteum
D) Yellow marrow

Red marrow

The adductor magnus muscle has a dual role. It’s anterior part assists in adduction and
medial rotation of the thigh as well as thigh flexion. What is the action of the posterior part?
A) Extends the knee
B) Assists in hip flexion and medial rotation
C) Acts as a synergist in thigh extension with the hamstrings
D) Adducts and medially rotates the thigh

Acts as a synergist in thigh extension with the hamstrings

Which muscle is involved in the abduction of the arm?
A. Pectoralis Major
B. Brachialis
C. Anconeus D. Deltoid

Deltoid

Dr. Ritu is extremely impressed and proud with the students’ progress in HN204 thus far and she
can’t help but smile. What muscle is she using to do so?
a. Zygomaticus Minor
b. Zygomaticus Major
c. Risorius
d. Orbicularis Oris

Zygomaticus Major

Which of the following muscles is responsible for initiating the
abduction of the arm?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Teres Minor
D) Subscapularis

Supraspinatus

Which two muscles share the same insertion point on the intertubercular sulcus of the
humerus?
A) Deltoid and teres minor
B) Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis
C) Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
D) Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

Which of the following is a wrist bone?
a) Phalange Bone
b) Metacarpal Bone
c) Trapezium Bone
d) Ulna Bone

Trapezium Bone

Which of the following ligaments is primarily responsible for preventing excessive posterior
translation of the tibia relative to the femur?

A) Tibial collateral ligament
B) Posterior cruciate ligament
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Patellar ligamen

Posterior cruciate ligament

Which of the following actions is primarily performed by the teres minor muscle?
A) Medial rotation of the shoulder joint
B) Lateral rotation of the arm
C) Abduction of the arm
D) Flexion of the shoulder join

Lateral rotation of the arm

Which carpal bones articulate with the radius?
a) Triquetrum and Pisiform
b) Lunate and Hamate
c) Scaphoid and Lunate
d) Scaphoid and Capitate

Scaphoid and Lunate

Which two muscles are responsible for depressing the lower lip/pouting?
A. Mentalis and Depressor anguli oris
B. Depressor anguli oris and Depressor labii inferioris
C. Levator labii superioris and Buccinator
D. Mentalis and Depressor labii inferioris

Mentalis and Depressor labii inferioris

Which of the following structures in the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) prevents the posterior
displacement if the mandible
a) Mandibular fossa
b) Zygomatic process
c) Lateral ligament d) Inferior joint cavity

Lateral ligament

Which quadriceps muscle flexes the thigh?
a) Adductor brevis
b) Rectus femoris
c) Sartorius
d) Vestus medialis

Rectus femoris

What is the name of the fossa directly inferior to the spine of the scapula?
a. Supraspinous fossa
b. Subscapular fossa
c. Infraspinous fossa
d. Coronoid fossa

Infraspinous fossa

What bone forms the medial border of the lower part of the leg?
a) Talus
b) Tibia
c) Fibula
d) Femur

Tibia

Which of the following muscles is responsible for the medial rotation of the arm?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Teres Minor
D) Subscapularis

Subscapularis

Which layer of the epidermis is known for its ability to undergo mitosis?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum granulosum
C) Stratum basale
D) Stratum lucidum

Stratum basale

Which muscle elevates the scapula?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Rhomboid minor
c. Levator Scapulae
d. Infraspinatus

Levator Scapulae

What is the name of the lower jawbone in the human body?
A) Maxilla
B) Zygomatic bone
C) Mandible
D) Vomer

Mandible

Which of the following is not a part of the forearm:
a) Pronator teres
b) Rectus Abdominis
c) Flexor carpi radialis
d) Palmaris Longu

Rectus Abdominis

The medial and lateral pterygoid both originate on the pterygoid plate, yet they have different
insertions. The insertions are:

A) Medial pterygoid inserts on the medial surface on the mandible near its angle, and the lateral pterygoid inserts on the lateral surface of the mandible.
B) Medial pterygoid inserts on the condylar process of the mandible and the lateral pterygoid inserts on the lateral surface of the mandible.
C) Medial pterygoid inserts on the medial surface on the mandible near its angle and the lateral pterygoid inserts on the condylar process of the mandible.
D) Medial pterygoid inserts on the coronoid process of the mandible, and the lateral pterygoid inserts on the condylar process of the mandible

Medial pterygoid inserts on the medial surface on the mandible near its angle and the lateral pterygoid inserts on the condylar process of the mandible.

What is the best description for the location of the heart within the body?
a. Posterior
b. Inferior
c. Lateral
d. Medial

Medial

Question: Which of the following best describes the function of the periosteum in bone
anatomy?
A) It provides a surface for muscle attachment and helps repair fractures.
B) It stores yellow bone marrow for energy reserves.
C) It serves as a protective outer covering and supplies blood and nutrients to the bone.
D) It contains osteocytes that maintain bone structure and density.

It serves as a protective outer covering and supplies blood and nutrients to the bone.

Which region of the spine is associated with C1 to C7 vertebrae?
A) Thoracic region
B) Lumbar region
C) Sacral region
D) Cervical region

Cervical region

Where are dendritic cells most prominently found?
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum corneum
d) Stratum lucidum

Stratum spinosum

Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for lateral rotation of the arm at the
shoulder joint?
A. Subscapularis
B. Pectoralis major
C. Infraspinatus
D. Teres major

Infraspinatus

What is the key feature of Thoracic Vertebrae?
A) Large, kidney-shaped vertebral body
B) Long, sharp spinous process pointed inferiorly
C) A triangular vertebral foramen
D) Short, blunt spinous process

Long, sharp spinous process pointed inferiorly

Which two muscles insert on the lesser tubercle?
a. Teres minor and pectoralis minor
b. Infraspinatus and rhomboid major
c. Rhomboid minor and pectoralis minor
d. Teres major and subscapularis

Teres major and subscapularis

What muscle is responsible for elevating the eyebrows causing forehead
wrinkles?
A) Corrugator supercilii
B) Orbicularis oculi
C) Frontal belly of the epicranius D) Platysma

Frontal belly of the epicranius

Which layer of the skin is primarily responsible for producing melanin?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum basale
C) Stratum spinosum
D) Stratum granulosum

Stratum basale

Which one of these bones does not belong to the foot:
a) Medial cuneiform
b) Cuboid
c) Navicular
d) Manubrium

Manubrium

Which muscle of upper extremity originates from the inferior angle of the scapula and inserts
on the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
a) Coracobrachialis
b) Teres major
c) Latissimus dorsi
d) Teres minor

Teres major

What are the functions of the SITS muscles?
a) Adduction, medial rotation, lateral rotation of the leg
b) Abduction, medial rotation and lateral rotation of the arm
c) Adduction, medial rotation, lateral rotation of the arm
d) Abduction and medial rotation of the arm

Abduction, medial rotation and lateral rotation of the arm

Which of the following is located in the temporal bone?
a) Foramen magnum
b) Zygomatic process c) Crista galli
d) Supraorbital notch

Zygomatic process

Which of the following terms correctly describes being more internal or further away from the
body surface?
A. Superficial
B. Proximal
C. Deep
D. Intermediate

Deep

What is the commonality between these rotator cuff muscles; Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus and
Teres Minor?
a) Origin- superior border of scapula
b) Insertion- greater tubercle of humerus
c) Insertion- lesser tubercle of humerus
d) Action- medial rotation of arm

Insertion- greater tubercle of humerus

Which of the following bones is not a carpal bone in the wrist?
1: Lunate
2: Trapezium
3: Metacarpal
4: Scaphoid

Metacarpal

From the options provided, what is the most inferior sinus on the head?

A. Ethmoidal Sinus
B. Maxillary Sinus
C. Frontal Sinus
D. Sphenoidal Sinus

Maxillary Sinus

Which of the following muscle classifications best describes the deltoid muscles?
1) Convergent
2) Parallel
3) Multipennate
4) Unipennate

Multipennate

When throwing a football using your dominant hand, which among the following list of agonistic
and antagonistic motions in the sagittal plane are involved?
a) Pronation and supination
b) Adduction and abduction
c) Flexion and extension
d) Protraction and retraction

Flexion and extension

Which term explains the rotation of a limb in a full, complete circle
a) Lateral rotation
b) Circumduction
c) Medial rotation
d) Pivot

Circumduction

What are the ABCD’s of melanoma?
a. Alternating spots, bulging from skin, causing irritation, diameter
b. Asymmetrical, blotchy pattern, changes shape, dark colour
c. Asymmetrical, irregular border, colour changes, diameter
d. Aggravated, irregular border, colour changes, develops quickly

Asymmetrical, irregular border, colour changes, diameter

Which structure is located on the ilium and serves as a key attachment point for
muscles of the lower limb?
A) Ischial tuberosity
B) Anterior superior iliac spine
C) Pubic symphysis
D) Trochlea of talus

Anterior superior iliac spine

Which of the following structures is located posterior and inferior to the posterior inferior iliac
spine?
A. Acetabulum
B. Lesser sciatic notch
C. Ischial spine
D. Greater sciatic notch

Greater sciatic notch

Which of the following statements regarding directional relationships is true:
a. The pectineus is medial to the gracilis.
b. The infraspinatus is deep to the deltoid.
c. The rhomboid major is superior to the rhomboid minor.
d. The spinalis is intermediate between the longissimus and iliocostalis.

The infraspinatus is deep to the deltoid.

Which of the following statements accurately explains how the structure of the femur
contributes to its functionality within the lower limb?
A. The medial course of the femur, more pronounced in men, allows for better distribution of weight across the tibial plateau.
B. The ball-like head of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum, allows for a wide range of motion, while the angled neck provides a lateral attachment point for the femur to the pelvis.
C. The greater and lesser trochanters located on the distal end of the femur serve as muscle attachment points for the quadriceps and hamstring muscles. D. The weak intertrochanteric line and crest form important joint surfaces that help the femur articulate with the patella.

The ball-like head of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum, allows for a wide range of motion, while the angled neck provides a lateral attachment point for the femur to the pelvis.

Please select the correct order of strata in the “thick skin” epidermis starting with the
most superficial layer:
A) Stratum Basale, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Corneum
B) Stratum Corneum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Basale
C) Stratum Corneum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Basale
D) Stratum Basale, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Corneum, Stratum Spinosum

Stratum Corneum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Basale

The (1)___ holds up the head, and the (2)___ allows for rotation in the neck

a. (1) Hyoid bone, (2) Atlas

b. (1) Atlas, (2) Axis

c. (1) Manubrium, (2) Hyoid bone

d. (1) Mandible, (2) Axis

(1) Atlas, (2) Axis

Select the correct action for the “SITS” muscles:
a. Supraspinatus (lateral rotation of arm), infraspinatus (medial rotation of arm), teres minor (lateral rotation of arm), subscapularis (abduction of arm)
b. Supraspinatus (abduction of arm), infraspinatus (lateral rotation of arm), teres minor (medial rotation of arm), subscapularis (lateral rotation of arm)
c. Supraspinatus (abduction of arm), infraspinatus (lateral rotation of arm), teres minor (lateral rotation of arm), subscapularis (medial rotation of arm)
d. Supraspinatus (medial rotation of arm), infraspinatus (lateral rotation of arm), teres minor (abduction of arm), subscapularis (lateral rotation of arm)

Supraspinatus (abduction of arm), infraspinatus (lateral rotation of arm), teres minor (lateral rotation of arm), subscapularis (medial rotation of arm)

Where is the insertion location of the diaphragm?
a) Superior Border
b) Inferior Border
c) Central Tendon d) Mastoid Process of Temporal Bone

Central Tendon

Question: What feature makes the atlas ( C1) unique?
Options:
a) Anterior arch and Anterior tubercle
b) Posterior arch and Posterior tubercle
c) Anterior tubercle and Posterior tubercle
d) Posterior arch and Anterior arch

Anterior tubercle and Posterior tubercle

What muscle is responsible for being the prime mover of arm abduction?
a. Trapezius
b. Pectorialis major
c. Deltoid
d. Teres major

Deltoid

What is a proper definition of the ala?
a. The slightly smooth surface inferior to the iliac tuberosity
b. The wing of the ilium
c. The small protruding notch on the posterior of the ischium
d. The large hole between the ischium and the pubis

The wing of the ilium?

The lumbar vertebrae are located directly between which two groups of vertebrae?
A) Between the cervical and thoracic vertebrae
B) Between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae
C) Between the thoracic and coccyx vertebrae
D) Between the sacral and coccyx vertebrae

Between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae

Which muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine, inserts on the medial surface of
the tibia, and is responsible for flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the hip?

A) Rectus Femoris
B) Sartorius
C) Tensor Fasciae Latae
D) Gracilis

Sartorius

Which layer of the Epidermis is in thick skin only and appears as shiny?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum basale

Stratum lucidum

Which of the following muscles is responsible for medial rotation of the humerus?
A) Infraspinatus
B) Subscapularis
C) Supraspinatus
D) Teres mino

Subscapularis

In which region of the spine does the greatest range of motion occur?
a. thoracic region
b. lumbar region
c. cervical region
d. sacral region

cervical region

What is the main consequence of repetitive flexion in the cervical and lumbar regions?
a. increased mobility
b. strengthened discs
c. improved posture
d. herniated disc

herniated disc

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic observed by doctors when diagnosing
melanomas?

a) Diameter
b) Asymmetry
c) Texture
d) Border

Texture

Using your understanding of the reticular layer, which of the following
statements is true about its function?
a) It is the outermost protective layer of a specialized cell known as adipocytes, and helps to maintain and store the proteins and fatty acids within it.
b) It is the barrier found within the outermost layer of the eye and helps photoreceptors to allow light to pass through.
c) It is a network of irregular connective tissue made up of collagen, that allows blood and nutrients to be transported within the layers of skin.
d) A waxy, oily substance that is released from the skin that prevents the skin from cracking and hair breaking off.

It is a network of irregular connective tissue made up of collagen, that allows blood and nutrients to be transported within the layers of skin.

Which of the following correctly matches the bone process with its primary feature or function?
A) Epicondyle – A sharp, slender projection typically found only on the femur.
B) Tuberosity – A large, convex articular prominence, serving as a primary point of articulation with other bones.
C) Trochanter – A large, blunt projection found exclusively on the femur, serving as an attachment site for muscles.
D) Crest – A small, rounded process mainly involved in forming joints with adjacent bones

Trochanter – A large, blunt projection found exclusively on the femur, serving as an attachment site for muscles.

What type of pigment is carotene?
a) Orange-yellow
b) Yellow-brown
c) Orange-brown
d) Red-brown

Orange-yellow

What is the name of the ring-like layer surrounding the haversian canal (osteon)
within the compact bone
A) Perforating (Volkmann’s) canal B) Perforating fibers
C) Lamellae
D) Trabeculae

Lamellae

Which of the following exhibits a down motion away from the body
A) Circumduction
B) Inversion
C) Dorsi flexion
D) Plantar flexion
E) Eversio

Plantar flexion

Which of the following accurately describes the secretion method and location of sebaceous
glands?
A) Secrete directly onto the skin surface in the armpits, groin, and nipples.
B) Secrete oily sebum into hair follicles for lubrication and antibacterial action.
C) Produce a thin, watery secretion controlled by the nervous system.
D) Secrete directly into the ear canal to produce cerumen (earwax)

Secrete oily sebum into hair follicles for lubrication and antibacterial action.

Which of the following bones articulate with the axial skeleton at the sacroiliac (SI) joint?
A: Femur
B: Patella
C: Innominate (hip) bone
D: Fibula

Innominate (hip) bone

Which of the following action is shared by the Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi, and
Teres Major muscles?
a. Adduct arm
b. Flexion of arm at shoulder
c. Extension of arm at shoulder
d. Abduct arm

Adduct arm

Imagine your foot is planted on the ground while standing. You raise your toes closer to
your shin while keeping your ankle on the ground in an upward motion. This is an
example of which body movement.

a) Plantar flexion
b) Dorsiflexion
c) Inversion
d) Abduction

Dorsiflexion

Which of the following is not a primary hip flexor?
a) Iliacus
b) Psoas major
c) Sartorius
d) Adductor brevis

Adductor brevis

The piriformis originates at the _____ and inserts at the ______.
a) sacrum; ilium
b) sacrum; greater trochanter
c) ischium; sacrum
d) ilium; greater trochante

sacrum; greater trochanter

Which of the following bones is involved in forming the glenohumeral joint?
a) Clavicle
b) Scapula
c) Radius
d) Ulna

Scapula

What is the insertion point for the biceps brachii?
a. The olecranon fossa
b. The head of the radius
c. The radial tuberosity
d. The medial epicondyle

The radial tuberosity

What two actions do the pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi share?
a. Abduction and extension
b. Medial rotation and flexion
c. Medial rotation and adduction
d. Lateral rotation and flexion

Medial rotation and adduction

Which are the three cuneiform bones located in the pedal
a) Distal cuneiform, Middle cuneiform, Proximal cuneiform
b) Lateral cuneiform, anterior cuneiform, Posterior cuneiform
c) Medial cuneiform, Intermediate cuneiform, Lateral cuneiform
d) Navicular cuneiform, Medial cuneiform, Proximal cuneiform

Medial cuneiform, Intermediate cuneiform, Lateral cuneiform