UV is used to kill bacteria in
food processing, hospitals, sewage treatment, labs
____ range is effective for killing bacteria, but ____ is the opitmal wavelength for killing bacteria by damaging the bacterial DNA
240-300 nm, 260 nm
Two mutanagenic effects of UV light on DNA
deamination of cytosine, formation of thymine dimers
Deamination of cytosine
reaction converts cytosine to uracil and induces a mutation, structural change destabilizes the DNA molecule
Formation of thymine dimers
Formation of dimes between adjacent thymine on the same strand (covalent bond), DNA cannot be replicated or transcribed (DNA polymerase does not recognize)
Can DNA be repaired from UV damage?
yes
2 Methods of repairing thymine dimer repair
photoreactivation, biochemical excision repair
Biochemical Excision Repair
excision of damaged bases; reconstruction of a functional DNA from undamaged fragments; hydrolysis of ATP for energy
Photoreactivation is only for
thymine dimers
Photoreactivation
photolyase breaks apart thymine dimers, visible light powers photolyase
Spore forming bacteria can survive adverse conditions by
making spores
Spores have a thicker
outer core wall
Spores are resistant to
heat, chemicals, radiation
Spores can germinate and
develop into functional vegetative cells
Under conditions of nutrient starvation, a metabolically active vegetative cell starts developing an endospore through a process called
sporogenesis
Endospore structure
central core, PG cortex, two protein layers
Central core contains
outer core wall, cell membrane, nuclear region, and other cell components
Two protein layers endospore
spore coat and exosporium
An easy way to select for a sample containing endospore is to heat at ____ for 15-20 minute
70-80 degrees C
UV light wavelengths are between
100-400 nm
Germicidal
having the ability to kill germs or other microorganisms
The enzyme ____ can bypass the stalled DNA polymerase caused by thymine dimers, but this results in ______
translesion polymerase, high frequency of mutations
Antimicrobial drugs are used to treat infectious diseases by
killing microorganisms, inhibiting growth
Bacteriocidal
kills bacteria
Bacteriostatic
inhibits bacterial growth
Antimicrobial drugs include
antibacterials, antiviral, and antifungal drugs
Another name for disc diffusion test
Kirby Bauer
Disc diffusion test does not determine
if agent is bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal
Efficacy of Kirby Bauer is indicated by
diameter zone of inhibition
Factors affecting size of inhibition zone
sensitivity of organism, molecular size and concentration of agent, density of culture, diffusion rate of agent, size of inoculum, time and temperature of incubation, interactions between antibiotic and medium
Using disc diffusion, we don't get an ________ of an antibiotic that is most effective
accurate measure of concentration
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
the smallest concentration (highest dilution) of drug that visibly inhibits growth
Standard for MIC
.5 McFarland standard
First step of MIC lab
dilute bacterial culture to same turbidity as mcfarland standard
How do you incubate antibiotic plate
right side up
What agar is used for antibiotic disc diffusion
Mueller Hinton agar
What organism forms spores in the UV lab
Bacillus
Depending on the zone of inhibition, an organism is classified as ___, ____ or _____
resistant, intermediate, sensitive to the antimicrobial
Therapeutic concentration
high enough to inhibit bacterial growth but low enough to avoid tissue damage
Standard incubation time and temp for antibiotic disc diffusion
16-18 h, 33-37
MBC stands for
minimum bactericidal concentration
MBC is defined as
the minimum concentration that inhibits growth and induces cell death
If MBC is close to MIC
the agent is bactericidal
If MBC is much greater than MIC
the agent is considered bacteriostatic
Antiseptic
a chemical agent that can be safely used externally on living tissues to destroy microorganisms or inhibit growth
Antibiotics have to be used at a _____
therapeutic concentration
Disinfectant
a chemical agent used on inanimate objects to destroy microbes or inhibit their growth
Biofilms are made of _____ secreted by bacterial cells
exopolysaccharides
Exopolysaccharides act as a protective mechanism against
nutrient/water loss
Biofilms are commonly foun
on teeth, on catheters, on drains, on contacts
Some organisms form biofilms at _____ interface when inoculated in a test tube
air-liquid
What is in the tube in the biofilm experiment
glucose and Lb
What organisms do we use for the biofilm former
P. aeruginosa or S. aureus
Four stages of biofilm formation
reversible attachment, non-reversible attachment, maturation, active dispersal
What happens during reversible attachment
motile bacteria bump into a surface and then swim away
Nonreversible attachment is due to an increase in production of
cell strucutres (pili, glycocalyx_ and surface proteins
What happens during maturation stage
actively growing cells produce polysaccharide and typically lose flagella
Active dispersal occurs when
the surrounding environment becomes. more favorable and flagella are produced so motile cells can escape the biofilm
Cells in the biofilm community may differentiate to express or silence genes, producing an antibiotic tolerant subpopulation of
persister cells
What are used as disinfectants
aldehydes, chlorine, and derivatives
Disinfectants typically work by
destroying the cell membrane of microorganisms or interfering with their metabolism
bacterial replication is ____, meaning that a single organism will divide into two, maintaining _____ gene transfer
binary, vertical
bacteria can aquire new genetic information from ______
horizontal gene transfer
conjugation
direct cell to cell contact that mediates transfer DNA
transduction
genetic information carried by bacterial virus from one bacterium to another
transformation
acquire DNA from surrounding environments
Ways for bacteria to aquire new genetic information
conjugation, transduction, transformation
plasmid
small circular DNA molecule that can replicate independently of the chromosome
extra genetic info from plasmid could be responsible for
antibiotic resistance, virulence factors, nutrient utilization, among other benefits
The contact during conjugation is formed by a
sexual pilus (f pilus)
F pilus is produced by a plasmid called
fertility factor, or F factor
A cell that has F factor is called a ____ cell
F+ cell
During conjugation, a copy of F factor is _________
nicked, unwound, and a single strand is transferred to the recipient cell
What is the recepient cell called during conjugation
F- cell
once a recepient cell obtains F factor it replicates the _____ to make a _____ molecule
single stranded DNA, double stranded DNA
Transconjugate
recipient cell that has received a copy of F factor
The F factor is a type of ____ that contains specific genes within the _____
plasmid, tra-operon
Tra-operon contains genes responsible for
transferring the plasmid from donor to recipient cell
R plasmid
F plasmids that carry more than one gene for antibiotic resistance
Which F factor do we use
F'128 factor
F'128 factor also contains the ____ operon, and a gene ____
lac, cat that codes for resistance to chloramphenicol
The F factor is present in ____ in the donor cell
multiple copies
The chromosome of the donor cell does not have genes responsible for ______
lactose utilization
Only one cell among _____ donor or recpient cells is transconjugate
10^5 or 10^6
What gene does the recepient cell contains
kan, that codes for resistance to kanamycin
The recipient cell is naturally _____ negative
lac
Occasionally, the F factor transfer will be interrupted before the transfer is complete, meaning ____ will be transferred but not ____
cat, lacZ
The interrupted mating process can be used to determine the _____ between the cat gene and the lacZ gene on the F factor
genetic distance
MacConkey+chloramphenicol
F+: cells grow, lac+ F-: no growth trans: majority donor cells, very few transconjugate, both lac +
MacConkey + kanamycin
F+: no growth F-: cells grow, lac- Trans: mixture of lac- recipient and lac+ trans (very few)
MacConkey+chloramphenicol+kanamycin
F+: no growth F-: no growth Trans: trans cells only, most lac+
Bacteriophage
virus that bacteria is susceptible to
In some estimates, there as many as ___ times as many phages as there are bacteria on earth
10
Phages contain their own ____
genetic material that is transcribed and translated within the host cell
PHages exist _____ in an infective but nonliving state called
extracellularly, virion
Viral reproduction occurs exclusively inside a host cell, and can occur in one of two cycles
lytic cycle, lysogenic cycle
Basic structure of a virion
capsid (protein shell) that encloses nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA)
Examples of virion shapes
helical, polyhedral, binal
With the binal phage, all of the viral nucleic acid is located in the ____
head, and the tail is used for attachment
Stages of lytic infection
attachment/absorption, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release