Exam 2- studyguide

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95 Terms

1
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What are ADME properties and what do they determine

A: Absorption: how well the drug enters the body

D: Distribution: how well the drug is distributed to the organs/tissue

M: Metabolism: How the drug us broken down to be eliminated

E: Elimination: how the drug exits the body

2
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What properties determine the nature of drug action

Binding activity and activity at the therapeutic target

3
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What is absorption?

movement of a drug from its site administration into the blood stream from the site of delivery, this indicates the blood is the main space where a drug will go first after its absorbed, and from there it can move to the rest of the body

4
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Which of these is a factor that affects absorption

all are correct

3 multiple choice options

5
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which molecule, hydrophilic or lipophilic molecules penetrate the lipid bilayer more readily

lipophilic

6
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Transport that requires energy

Active

1 multiple choice option

7
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transport that does not require energy

Passive

1 multiple choice option

8
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Type of passive transport that goes through cells with no transporter

diffusion

2 multiple choice options

9
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Type of passive transport that goes through cells mediated by SLC transporter

facilitated diffusion

2 multiple choice options

10
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Type of passive transport that goes around cells with no transporter

Paracellular transport

2 multiple choice options

11
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Passive transport moves with a concentration gradient from _ to __.

High to low

12
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Active transporters use __ to move drugs against the concentration gradient

energy

1 multiple choice option

13
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Active transporters use __ to move ion against the concentration gradient

ATP

1 multiple choice option

14
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true/false In terms of ionization, charged forms do not readily cross the membrane

true

15
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true/false in terms of ionization, uncharged forms do not penetrate membranes

false

16
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What is pka

the ph at which half the drug is in its ionized and unionized form

17
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ph

protonated

18
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ph>pka

which form will predominate

un/deprotonated

19
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Do ionized or unionized forms cross membranes more easily

unionized

20
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Where do more basic drugs get absorbed and why

they are unionized at its higher pH env. small intestine because it has a high surface area

21
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What is the fractional extent to which a dose of a drug reaches the systemic circulation

bioavailability

3 multiple choice options

22
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Which of the following situations would be expected to decrease the oral bioavailability of a drug

The drug undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver

3 multiple choice options

23
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What symbol is used for bioavailability

F

3 multiple choice options

24
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What does the area under the curve represent?

AUC represents the overall amount of drug in the blood after a given dose over time

25
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which of these is NOT a parenteral ROA

Oral ingestion and transdermal

3 multiple choice options

26
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True/false accelerating gastric emptying will increase rate of absorption from the upper intestine

true

27
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What four properties make a drug bioequivalent

1. Same active form

2. concentration

3. dosage form

4. ROA

28
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What phase of distribution passes through well-perfused organs such as the brain, kidneys, lungs, and liver

FIrst phase

1 multiple choice option

29
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What phase of distribution passes through muscle, viscera, and fat

second phase

1 multiple choice option

30
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In terms of protein binding drugs acidic drugs bind to _

albumin

31
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In terms of protein binding drugs basic drugs bind to _

a-acid glycoprotein

32
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Why does protein binding limit the availability of drugs

Because only unbound drugs can cross membranes

33
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which of the following statements about tissue binding of drugs is correct

Amino-glycoside antibiotics can accumulate in tissues, leading to renal and ear toxicity

3 multiple choice options

34
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_ transporters move drugs into the brain

influx

1 multiple choice option

35
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_ transporters move drugs away from the brain

efflux

1 multiple choice option

36
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true/false drugs never can cross the placenta, making most drugs safe in fetal development

false

37
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1. introduce or expose functional groups

2. example CYP450 enzymes

3. result in both active and inactive compounds

which phase of metabolism?

Phase 1 of metabolism

1 multiple choice option

38
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1. Polar conjugates are usually inactive and excreted rapidly

2. covalent linkage between functional groups on drugs/metabolite and glucuronic acid, sulfate, or glutathione

3. example: UPD-glucuronosyl transferases and sulfotransferases

which phase of metabolism?

Phase 2 of metabolism

1 multiple choice option

39
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What is a prodrug

A drug given in an inactive form and once inside the body, enzymes or chemical changes converts it to an active drug that actually produces and affect like for example, Codeine, the body changes it into morphine

40
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Which of the following statements it true about drug-drug interactions

enzyme induction increases metabolism, lowering drug levels and potentially reducing effectiveness

3 multiple choice options

41
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what is the main route of elimination/excretion

Urine and feces

42
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what are examples of other routes of elimination/excretion

Minor: lungs, sweat, saliva, tears and breast milk

43
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In first order kinetics, there is a constant _ of drug metabolized per unit time, while in zero order kinetics there is a constant _ of drug metabolized per unit time

fraction and amount

44
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A measure of the bodys efficiency in eliminating a drug from systemic circulation

Clearance

3 multiple choice options

45
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a measure of the rate of removal of a drug form systemic circulation

Half life

3 multiple choice options

46
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fraction of a drug absorbed into the systemic circulation

Bioavailability

3 multiple choice options

47
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Apparent space of body available to contain a drug based on a mount given and concentration in systemic circulation

Volume of distribution

3 multiple choice options

48
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true/ false in terms of clearance, first order clearance has a nonlinear relationship between concentration and elimination, while zero order has a linear relationship between concentration and elimination

false

49
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what can limit hepatic clearance

reduces hepatic blood blow, the blood flow can be impacted by hypotension or heart failure

50
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The clearance of drugs by the kidney depends on

1. Glomular filtration

2. secretion

3. reabsorption

4. glomular blood flood

51
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series of repetitive doses or continuous injection to maintain steady state

maintenance dose

1 multiple choice option

52
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a dose used to achieve target concentration rapidly

loading dose

1 multiple choice option

53
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what are some disadvantages of a loading dose

prolonged exposure to drugs with long half -lives and potential to reach toxic concentration rapidly

54
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what is the genetic mutation variation that occurs at a frequency of at least 1% in the human population

polymorphism

3 multiple choice options

55
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True/false if someone has a gene duplication of CYP2D6 they should be considered an ultra rapid metabolizer

true

56
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What type of coding region SNPs impacts the protein sequence which leads to amino acid substitution or stop translation

non-synonymous (missense)

3 multiple choice options

57
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what are three type of polymorphisms

1. single nucleotide polymorphism

2. insertions/deleltions (indels)

3. copy number variation

58
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genetic variation that occurs in at least 1% of the human population

Polymorphism

59
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inherited trait from one parent

Dominant trait

60
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segment of gene that does not code for protein and interrupts gene sequence

intron

61
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mutations or genes on the X chromosome

X-Linked

62
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pertaining to non-sex chromosomes

Autosomal

63
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inherited trait from both parents

Recessive trait

64
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two different alleles that can be expressed with mixed phenotypic patterns

Co dominant trait

65
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segment of gene containing coding information

Exon

66
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Which molecules will most readily cross cell membranes

unionized molecules

67
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Which of the following ROA is not a type of parental administration

Transdermal and oral injestion

3 multiple choice options

68
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Immediate onset of action, utility in emergency situations, easy dose adjustment and low first pass hepatic metabolism are characteristics of this ROA

intravenous

3 multiple choice options

69
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true/false the oral route is generally considered the easiest and most convenient ROA for drugs

true

70
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which of the following ROA's is most subject to first pass metabolism

oral

3 multiple choice options

71
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true/ false a drug with a f value of 0.9 would be considered to have low bioavailability

false

72
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dose dumping failure of a dosage form is a potential limitation for this ROA

oral controlled released formulation

3 multiple choice options

73
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if a weak base has a pka value of 9.4, what will the ratio of ionized vs unionized drug at a ph of 7.4

100:1

74
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true/ false with zero order pharmacokinetics, a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time

true

75
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true/ false protein binding in plasma has an impact on both drug distribution and elimination by limiting both drug availability and glomuar filtration

true

76
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1. functions to restrict access of chemicals to the brain on the basis of charge, size and lipid solubility

2. composed of tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells

3. is augmented by membrane transporters

blood brain barrier

77
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A process that results in a covalent linkage between a functional group on a drug or metabolite and glucuronic acid, sulfate, or glutathione

phase 2 biosynthetic reaction

3 multiple choice options

78
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A Term that relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration and also reflects the extent to which a drug is present in extravascular tissue and not in plasma

volume of distribution

3 multiple choice options

79
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a measure of the bodys efficiency in elimination drugs that is measured in units of volume per unit time

clearance

3 multiple choice options

80
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true/ false to rapidly achieve and maintain a desires plasma concentration, a dosing regimen that includes both a loading and maintenance dose should be utilized

true

81
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Drugs such as verapamil, morphine, propanalol have high inartistic clearance and are readily metabolized in the liver. Systemic clearance of such drugs will be impacted most by

reduced blood flow due to hypotension or heart failure

3 multiple choice options

82
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gene duplications of the CYP2D6 gene resulting variability in drug metabolism represent this type of polymorphism

Copy variation number

83
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Genetic variations occurring at a frequency of at least 1% un the human population are referred to as

polymorphism

84
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The segment of a gene containing coding information

exon

85
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The gene for ABCB1 transporter may contain a C or a T as the base in positions 3435, such genetic variability is known as

single nucleotide polymorphism

86
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A patient whose genome lacks copies of GYP2D6 gene, and thus lacks GYP2D6 function would be considered

poor or null metabolizer

87
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true/false a synonymous (sense) SNP in the coding region of a gene would alter the AA sequence of the gene product, potentially leading to changes in the structure or function of the protein

false

88
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A glutathione-S-transferase M1 (GSTM1) polymorphism associated with a loss of 50 kilobases, resulting in reduced glutothione conjugating capacity

deletion

89
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Midazolam is metabolized by CYP3A5, which is expressed in a higher percentage of African-Americans (55%) than in Japanese (33%) or Caucasians (10-20%). The source of this variability is a SNP in intron 3 that encodes a stop codon and truncates the protein, thereby reducing expression of CYP3A5. Based on this information, which patient population would exhibit higher levels of hydroxylated midazolam (a metabolite of midazolam)?

african americans

90
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Can you calculate half life based on a zero order graph

no

91
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Can you calculate volume of distribution based of a first order with multiple compartments graph

no

92
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how do you calculate the clearance based off a first order multiple compartment graph

from the AUC

93
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How to calculate K

0.693/T0.5

94
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how to calculate clearance

CL=kVd

95
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how to calculate Vd

Vd= Dose/concentration of plasma @ time 0