microbiology exam 4 (final)

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Last updated 10:49 PM on 12/7/24
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60 Terms

1
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What is the functional unit of genetic information?

Gene.

2
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Why is supercoiling important for DNA structure?

It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell.

3
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How are plasmids different from chromosomes?

Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication.

4
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What is the precursor of each new nucleotide in a strand of DNA?

Deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate.

5
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What is an example of correct nucleotide pairing?

A and T.

6
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What is pathogenicity?

The ability of the pathogen to inflict damage on the host.

7
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Which of the following is NOT a subunit of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

M protein.

8
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What do Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes strains produce that causes severe symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?

Superantigen toxins.

9
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What type of toxin is diphtheria toxin?

An AB toxin.

10
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What causes decalcification of tooth enamel?

Lactic acid.

11
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Which bacterial genera is NOT implicated in dental caries?

Borrelia.

12
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What does tetanus toxin cause?

Muscles to be unable to relax.

13
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Shiga toxin is produced by which pathogen?

Shigella dysenteriae.

14
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What are exotoxins and endotoxins?

Exotoxins are proteins, but endotoxins are lipopolysaccharide-lipoprotein complexes.

15
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What is an endogenous pyrogen?

A chemical produced by a host's own immune system that causes fever.

16
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What is immunity?

The ability of humans to resist a disease.

17
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What are cells that can engulf foreign particles and kill bacterial pathogens called?

Phagocytes.

18
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When does adaptive immunity occur?

When the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens.

19
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What do blood and lymph have in common?

They are both part of the immune system, but blood contains red blood cells.

20
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Where are stem cells produced and developed?

In the bone marrow.

21
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Which cell type has no nucleus?

Erythrocytes.

22
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What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

Lymph nodes, MALT, and the spleen.

23
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What is immune memory?

The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure.

24
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What is an example of a pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP)?

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

25
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How do T cells recognize antigens?

With their T cell receptors.

26
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What is antibody-mediated immunity effective against?

Extracellular pathogens.

27
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What is tolerance in immunity?

The acquired inability to mount an adaptive immune response against self.

28
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What intrinsic properties are important for immunogens?

Appropriate physical form, molecular size, and molecular complexity.

29
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What is the part of the antigen recognized by the antibody or TCR?

Epitope.

30
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What is a cross-reaction in immunology?

An interaction between an antibody or TCR and a heterologous antigen.

31
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Where are Class I MHC proteins found?

On the surfaces of all nucleated cells.

32
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What protein coreceptor do Th cells express?

CD4.

33
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What do natural killer cells use to kill targets?

Perforin and granzymes.

34
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Which enzyme is NOT secreted by Th1 cells?

Fibrin.

35
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Where are antibodies found?

Milk, mucosal secretions, and serum.

36
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Which of the following is NOT an immunoglobulin?

IgC.

37
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How is antimicrobial drug resistance usually passed?

By horizontal gene transfer.

38
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What do most drug-resistant bacteria contain?

An R plasmid.

39
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What does the tuberculin skin test identify?

A delayed hypersensitive (DTH) Th1-mediated response.

40
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What is a cause of drug-specific resistance in organisms?

Indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobials.

41
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Which test allows for identification of microorganisms in infected tissues?

Fluorescent antibody (FA) test.

42
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What does EMB agar select for?

Gram-negative bacteria.

43
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What is a zoonosis?

A disease that primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans.

44
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What is a fomite?

An inanimate object that transmits infectious agents between hosts.

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Which is NOT a public health measure to control disease transmission?

Genetic engineering.

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Which microbial group is most resistant to desiccation?

Gram-positive bacteria.

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What is the causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis?

Streptococcus pyogenes.

48
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What causes impetigo?

Infection by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.

49
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What is rheumatic fever?

An autoimmune disease.

50
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Why can a person be reinfected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Due to the diversity of strains and frequency of mutation.

51
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What virus caused the Spanish flu of 1918?

H1N1 influenza virus.

52
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What is TRUE about chlamydial infections?

Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications.

53
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What is the CD4 molecule?

A cell-surface protein that allows HIV to infect a cell.

54
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What type of vaccine component is the diphtheria component of DTaP?

A toxoid.

55
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Which is NOT a staphylococcal disease?

Strep throat.

56
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What type of diseases require BSL 4 procedures?

Highly infectious diseases with high mortality for which no treatment or vaccine exists.

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What is the most important potential common source of infectious disease?

Water.

58
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How is malaria controlled?

By reducing the population of the mosquito vector.

59
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What are the most serious types of fungal infections?

Systemic mycoses.

60
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What is a common mechanism for fungal diseases?

Hypersensitivity reactions.