microbiology exam 4 (final)

Question 1
Q: The functional unit of genetic information is the:
A: Gene.

Question 2
Q: Supercoiling is important for DNA structure because:
A: It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell.

Question 3
Q: How are plasmids different than chromosomes?
A: Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication.

Question 4
Q: The precursor of each new nucleotide in a strand of DNA is a:
A: Deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate.

Question 5
Q: An example of correct nucleotide pairing is:
A: A and T.

Question 6
Q: Pathogenicity is the ability:
A: Of the pathogen to inflict damage on the host.

Question 7
Q: Which of the following is NOT a subunit of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?
A: M protein.

Question 8
Q: Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes strains can produce ________ that cause the severe and sometimes life-threatening symptoms of toxic shock syndrome.
A: Superantigen toxins.

Question 9
Q: Diphtheria toxin is:
A: An AB toxin.

Question 10
Q: Decalcification of the tooth enamel is caused by:
A: Lactic acid.

Question 11
Q: The following bacterial genera are all implicated in dental caries EXCEPT:
A: Borrelia.

Question 12
Q: Tetanus toxin causes:
A: Muscles to be unable to relax.

Question 13
Q: Shiga toxin is an enterotoxin that is produced by:
A: Shigella dysenteriae.

Question 14
Q: Exotoxins are ________, but endotoxins are ________.
A: Proteins / lipopolysaccharide-lipoprotein complexes.

Question 15
Q: An endogenous pyrogen is:
A: A chemical produced by a host's own immune system that causes fever.

Question 16
Q: The ability of humans to resist a disease is called:
A: Immunity.

Question 17
Q: Cells that can engulf foreign particles, and can ingest, kill, and digest most bacterial pathogens are called:
A: Phagocytes.

Question 18
Q: Adaptive immunity occurs when:
A: The innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.

Question 19
Q: Blood and lymph have the following in common EXCEPT:
A: Red blood cells.

Question 20
Q: Stem cells are produced and developed in the:
A: Bone marrow.

Question 21
Q: Which of the following cell types has NO nucleus?
A: Erythrocytes.

Question 22
Q: The secondary lymphoid organs consist of which of the following?
A: Lymph nodes, MALT, and the spleen.

Question 23
Q: The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is called:
A: Immune memory.

Question 24
Q: An example of a pathogen-associated molecular pattern (PAMP) is:
A: Lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

Question 25
Q: T cells recognize antigens with their:
A: T cell receptors.

Question 26
Q: Antibody-mediated immunity is particularly effective against:
A: Extracellular pathogens.

Question 27
Q: ________ is the acquired inability to mount an adaptive immune response against self.
A: Tolerance.

Question 28
Q: Intrinsic properties of immunogens include:
A: Appropriate physical form, molecular size, and molecular complexity.

Question 29
Q: The part of the antigen recognized by the antibody or TCR is called the:
A: Epitope.

Question 30
Q: A cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR and:
A: A heterologous antigen.

Question 31
Q: Which of the following are found on the surfaces of all nucleated cells?
A: Class I MHC proteins.

Question 32
Q: Th cells express a ________ protein coreceptor.
A: CD4.

Question 33
Q: Natural killer cells like Tc cells use ________ and granzymes to kill their targets without prior exposure or contact with the foreign cells.
A: Perforin.

Question 34
Q: Which of the following enzymes are NOT secreted by Th1 cells to activate macrophages?
A: Fibrin.

Question 35
Q: Antibodies are found in:
A: Milk, mucosal secretions, and serum.

Question 36
Q: Which of the following is NOT an immunoglobulin?
A: IgC.

Question 37
Q: Widespread antimicrobial drug resistance is usually passed by:
A: Horizontal gene transfer.

Question 38
Q: Most drug-resistant bacteria isolated from patients contain a(n):
A: R plasmid.

Question 39
Q: The tuberculin skin test looks to identify ________ specific to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
A: A delayed hypersensitive (DTH) Th1-mediated response.

Question 40
Q: Which of the following is a cause of drug-specific resistance in disease-causing organisms?
A: Indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobials.

Question 41
Q: Which of the following immunological tests would allow the specific identification of a microorganism directly in infected tissues?
A: Fluorescent antibody (FA).

Question 42
Q: EMB agar preferentially selects for the growth of ________ bacteria.
A: Gram-negative.

Question 43
Q: A ________ is a disease that primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans.
A: Zoonosis.

Question 44
Q: An inanimate object that transmits infectious agents between hosts is most appropriately called a
A: Fomite.

Question 45
Q: Which of the following is NOT a public health measure used to control the transmission of disease?
A: Genetic engineering.

Question 46
Q: Which of the following microbial groups is most resistant to desiccation due to their cell wall?
A: Gram-positive.

Question 47
Q: The causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis, also known as "strep throat," is
A: Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 48
Q: Impetigo is due to an infection caused by
A: Either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 49
Q: Rheumatic fever is
A: An autoimmune disease.

Question 50
Q: Once a person has been infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the individual
A: Can be reinfected immediately because of the diversity of strains and frequency of mutation.

Question 51
Q: The Spanish flu of 1918 was caused by an ________ influenza virus.
A: H1N1.

Question 52
Q: Which of the following statements about chlamydial infections is TRUE?
A: Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications.

Question 53
Q: The CD4 molecule is
A: A cell-surface protein that allows HIV to infect a cell.

Question 54
Q: The diphtheria component of the DTaP vaccine is a(n)
A: Toxoid.

Question 55
Q: Which of the following is NOT a staphylococcal disease?
A: Strep throat.

Question 56
Q: What type of diseases require biosafety level (BSL) 4 procedures and facilities when working with samples that may be infected?
A: Highly infectious diseases with high mortality for which no treatment or vaccine exists.

Question 57
Q: The most important potential common source of infectious disease is
A: Water.

Question 58
Q: Malaria is
A: Controlled by reducing the population of the mosquito vector.

Question 59
Q: The most serious types of fungal infections are
A: Systemic mycoses.

Question 60
Q: A common mechanism for fungal diseases is
A: Hypersensitivity reactions.