Pediatrics

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145 Terms

1
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what is sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

sudden death of an infant younger than one year of age (<1 y/o), which remains unexplained

- after thorough case investigation, including the performance of a complete autopsy, exam of death scene, & review of clinical history

2
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what is the leading cause of infant mortality between 1 month & 1 yr of age in the US?

SIDS

3
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in the US, the incidence of SIDS has declined by >50% since the 80s, & the greatest reduction occurred after 1992. what caused this?

American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) issued a recommendation to reduce the risk of SIDS by placing infants in a supine position for sleep

4
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maternal risk factors for SIDS

- young age

- smoking during pregnancy

- late or no prenatal care

- drug use (including alcohol use)

- pregnancy complications (placenta previa, abruptio placenta [placental abruption], premature rupture of membranes)

- elevated maternal alpha fetoprotein (neural tube defect, down syndrome, more than 1 fetus)

5
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infant & environmental risk factors for SIDS

- preterm birth &/or low birth weight

- prone sleep position

- sleeping on soft surface &/or w/ bedding accessories (loose blankets & pillows)

- bed sharing (sleeping in parents' bed)

- overheating

- sibling of SIDS victim

- twins

- exposure to cigarette smoke

6
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what is the biggest protective factor against SIDS?

modifiable risk factors

7
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factors that are somewhat protective against SIDS:

- room sharing w/o bed sharing

- breastfeeding

- pacifier use

- fan use

8
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what is the pathogenesis of SIDS?

unknown

- most compelling hypothesis involves brainstem abnormality or maturational delay related to neuroregulation or cardiorespiratory control, combined w/ a trigger event (such as, airflow obstruction)

9
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what can be done to prevent SIDS?

- infants should be placed supine (on their backs) for every sleep

- sleep on a firm surface designed specifically for infants w/o pillows, stuffed toys, crib bumper pads, blankets, loose bedding, excessive clothing, or sleep positioners

- NO bed sharing (although ROOM sharing is encouraged)

- mothers should avoid smoking, alcohol, illicit drug use & should obtain proper prenatal care

10
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what is respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) (formerly known as hyaline membrane disease [HMD])?

caused primarily by a deficiency of pulmonary surfactant in an immature lung (premature infant)

11
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in preparation for air-breathing, surfactant is expressed in the lung starting around the _______ week of gestation

20th

12
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what does surfactant do?

reduces alveolar surface tension

- thereby facilitating alveolar expansion & reducing the likelihood of alveolar collapse from atelectasis (complete/partial collapse of the lung)

13
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what is the most common cause of surfactant deficiency?

preterm delivery

- there are also genetic causes

14
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incidence of RDS increases w/ ______________ GA

decreasing

1 multiple choice option

15
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which infants are at the greatest risk for RDS, with an incidence of of 90%?

extremely preterm infants (GA

16
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clinical manifestations of RDS:

present w/i the 1st mins to hrs after birth

- signs of respiratory distress

*tachypnea

*nasal flaring

*use accessory respiratory muscles

*expiratory grunting

*intercostal/subxiphoid/subcostal retractions

*cyanosis

- hypoxemia

17
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what may a CXR show w/ RDS?

- air bronchograms (tubular outline of an airway made visible by filling of the surrounding alveoli by fluid or inflammatory process)

- diffuse bilateral atelectasis (causing ground glass appearance)

- doming of the diaphragm (causing low lung volumes)

18
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what should be administered to all pregnant women at 22-34 wks gestation who are at increased risk of preterm delivery w/i the next 7 days?

antenatal corticosteroid (ACS) therapy

- betamethasone & dexamethasone (most widely used)

19
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what does antenatal corticosteroid (ACS) therapy do?

it enhances maturational changes in the fetal lung w/ increased synthesis & release of surfactant

- resulting in improved neonatal lung function

20
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what is recommended after delivery for tx of preterm infants w/ RDS?

NIPPV (CPAP)

- may require intubation/mechanical ventilation

21
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_______________________ is recommended for pre-term infants in respiratory distress which should be given w/i 30-60 mins after delivery for optimal effect

exogenous surfactant

22
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exogenous surfactant is recommended for pre-term infants in respiratory distress which should be given w/i _________________ after delivery for optimal effect

30-60 mins

23
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how is the exogenous surfactant given to the infant (route)?

directly into lungs

24
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what is foreign body aspiration (FBA)?

unintentional inhalation of foreign body into the airway

- most often in children < 3 y/o (but can occur in all ages, esp. older adults)

- aspiration may be gastric contents, inert material, toxic material or food

25
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when should FBA be suspected?

in patients who have a sudden onset of lower respiratory sx (including asphyxia)

26
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____________ may result from the aspiration of obstructing material

asphyxia

27
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clinical manifestations of FBA:

- sudden onset of lower respiratory sx (including asphyxia)

- cyanosis

- loss of consciousness

- inability to cry or make much sound

- weak, ineffective cough

- soft or high pitched sounds while inhaling

- pneumonia, secondary to aspiration

28
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what is one of the most common causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

acute gastric aspiration

29
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how is FBA diagnosed?

clinically (based on sx/choking)

1. obtain plain CXR

- neck XR can also be obtained

- usually proceed to bronchoscopy

30
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what are the most common radiographic findings on CXR w/ FBA?

- hyperinflated lung (caused by airway obstruction)

- atelectasis

- pneumonia (consolidated infiltrates)

- mediastinal shift

- the object & its location

31
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w/ FBA, what is the hyperinflation of the lung caused by?

a check valve effect

- airways dilate during inhalation, permitting air to pass by a partial obstruction; however, airways constrict tightly around the obstruction during exhalation resulting in trapped air/hyperinflation

<p>a check valve effect</p><p>- airways dilate during inhalation, permitting air to pass by a partial obstruction; however, airways constrict tightly around the obstruction during exhalation resulting in trapped air/hyperinflation</p>
32
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CXR is ________ in atleast 30% of FBA cases

normal

33
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in FBA, why would you do a neck radiograph (PA/lateral view)?

to evaluate for a foreign body or signs of a foreign body (subglottic density or swelling)

34
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in stable pts w/ a high clinical suspicion of FBA if the plain radiographs are inconclusive or normal, what should they proceed to?

bronchoscopy

- an endoscopic procedure that passes a probe w/ a camera into the trachea & proximal airways

35
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are bronchoscopies diagnostic, therapeutic or both for FBA?

both

3 multiple choice options

36
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what is the treatment for unstable patients w/ suspected FBA?

immediate BLS measures to relieve the obstruction

- including: heimlich maneuver or for an infant, back blows (between scapula) w/ chest thrusts

37
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what is the treatment for stable patients w/ suspected FBA?

removal of the object ASAP w/ bronchoscopy

38
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in a patient w/ FBA, what should be given for further tx if there's suspicion of bacterial pneumonia caused by aspiration?

antibiotics

39
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in comparison to adults, where is the position of the larynx in infants & children?

higher & more anterior

40
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as a result of the higher & more anterior larynx in infants & children, what may happen?

w/ resuscitation, hyperextension of the neck may worsen obstruction in the upper airway

41
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why are the airways of children more susceptible to obstruction from edema, mucous plugs or foreign body?

bc their airways are smaller

42
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what contributes to a tendency for the posterior pharynx to buckle during resuscitation in infants/children?

the larger occiput causes passive flexion of the cervical spine in the supine position

43
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what is the occiput?

back of head or skull

44
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what is a common cause of airway obstruction in the unresponsive child?

the tongue (which is relatively larger compared to the oral cavity in a child)

- it can fall back against the hypopharynx w/ a decreased level of consciousness

45
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what is croup?

a respiratory illness characterized by inspiratory stridor, cough, & hoarseness which result from inflammation in the larynx & subglottic airway

- most commonly occurs in children 6 mo to 3 y/o

46
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what is the hallmark symptom of croup among infants & young chilren?

barking cough

- hoarseness predominates in older children & adults

47
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what is the anatomic hallmark of croup?

narrowing of the subglottic airway (the portion of the larynx immediately below the vocal folds)

- this is what causes the "barking cough"

48
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other terms used to describe croup:

- laryngotracheitis

- laryngotracheobronchitis

49
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what is the most common cause of croup (esp. in the fall & winter)?

parainfluenza virus type 1

50
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parainfluenza type 2 sometimes causes croup outbreaks, usually with ________ disease than type 1

milder

1 multiple choice option

51
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parainfluenza type 3 also causes sporadic cases of croup that often are _____ severe than those due to types 1 or 2.

more

1 multiple choice option

52
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other viruses that can cause croup:

- RSV

- adenoviruses

- coronavirus

- measles

- influenza

- measles

- rhinoviruses

- enteroviruses

- metapneumoviruses

53
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is croup always viral?

no, it can be bacterial

- mycoplasma pneumoniae has been associated w/ mild cases

- croup caused by viruses can also lead to a secondary bacterial infection

54
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which bacteria has been associated w/ mild cases of croup?

mycoplasma pneumoniae

3 multiple choice options

55
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s/s of croup:

usually begin w/ nasal discharge & congestion & progress over 12-48 hrs to include:

- fever (low grade)

- hoarseness

- barking cough (seal like)

- inspiratory stridor

- tachypnea w/ a prolonged inspiratory phase

56
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how is croup diagnosed?

clinically

- imaging not required but XR can show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the "steeple sign"

57
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what radiographic finding is diagnostic for croup?

"steeple sign"

- subglottic airway narrowing at the cricoid cartilage

<p>"steeple sign"</p><p>- subglottic airway narrowing at the cricoid cartilage</p>
58
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how is mild croup treated?

can be managed at home w/ the option of giving a single dose of glucocorticoids (dexamethasone or prednisolone)

59
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moderate/severe croup =

stridor at rest &/or other signs of respiratory distress, such as:

- retractions

- tachypnea

- accessory muscle use

60
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mild croup =

no stridor at rest & no respiratory distress

61
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how is moderate/severe croup treated?

nebulized epinephrine (racemic epinephrine)

+ a single dose of glucocorticoid (dexamethasone)

62
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patients w/ croup should also be given supportive care. what can this include?

- humidified air

- antipyretics

- encouragement of fluid intake

63
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what is pertussis?

"whooping cough"

- very contagious

- spread by respiratory droplets

64
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which bacteria causes pertussis?

bordatella pertussis

- gram negative (-) coccobacillus

65
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which vaccines given in the US help prevent pertussis?

- DTaP (children < 7 y/o)

- Tdap (> 7 y/o)

66
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can pertussis still occur in fully vaccinated people?

YES

- but the infection is usually less serious

67
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what are the 3 stages of classic pertussis?

- catarrhal

- paroxysmal

- convalescent

68
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catarrhal stage of pertussis

appears similar to viral URI w/ mild cough & coryza

- fever is uncommon but may be low grade

- cough gradually increases (instead of improving like it would in a typical viral URI)

69
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the cararrhal stage generally lasts ____________

1-2 wks

70
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which stage of pertussis is the most infectious?

catarrhal

71
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paroxysmal stage of pertussis

coughing spells increase in severity

- during episodes, child may gag, develop cyanosis, & appear to be struggling to breathe

- "whoop" is noise made by forced inspiratory effort that follows coughing attack

- posttussive vomiting

72
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_______________________ is moderately sensitive & specific for pertussis in children

posttussive vomiting

73
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the paroxysmal stage may last ____________

2-8 wks

74
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convalescent stage of pertussis

cough subsides over several weeks to months

- episodic coughing may recur or worsen w/ interval URI

75
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older children/adults w/ pertussis generally present w/ _______ disease

milder

1 multiple choice option

76
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any cough persisting for __________ w/ no other cause should be questioned for pertussis

> 2 wks

77
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how is pertussis diagnosed?

clinically

- nonspecific lab finding of leukocytosis resulting from lymphocytosis (although WBC count can be normal)

- CXR not helpful (can be normal or show peribronchial cuffing, perihilar infiltrates, or atelectasis)

78
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according to the CDC case definition, probable pertussis can be diagnosed w/o lab testing in pts w/o a more likely diagnosis who have either of the following:

- acute cough illness >/= 2 wks & atleast 1 of the following perussis-associated sx: paroxysms of coughing, inspiratory whoop, posttussive vomiting, apnea w/ or w/o cyanosis

- acute cough illness of any duration w/ atleast 1 of the above pertussis associated sx & contact w/ a lab confirmed case

79
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although lab testing is not necessary to make the diagnosis of pertussis, why do we often perform it?

to confirm the diagnosis

- particularly when there is a need for contact prophylaxis

80
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for confirmation of pertussis in pts w/ sx for < 4 months, what can be done?

PCR & culture (if available) of nasopharyngeal specimens

81
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for confirmation of pertussis in pts w/ sx for > 4 months, what can be done?

PCR & culture (if available) of nasopharyngeal specimens

+ consider serology antibodies to pertussis toxin

82
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recommend ____________________ for all pts w/ a clinical or microbiologic diagnosis of pertussis ASAP - do NOT wait for lab findings to confirm

antibiotic therapy

83
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which abx can be used to treat pertussis?

macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, & clarithromycin)

- Bactrim is an alternative option for children > 2 mo who have a contraindication or cannot tolerate macrolides

**these same agents are used for postexposure prophylaxis

84
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who should you recommend post-pertussis exposure prophylaxis to?

- all household & close contacts of the index case

- exposed individuals at high risk for severe or complicated infection (even if they're fully immunized)

85
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what is antiobiotic treatment of pertussis focused on?

a. decreasing symptoms

b. decreasing transmission

b. decreasing transmission

1 multiple choice option

86
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supportive care is essential in treating pertussis. what does this include?

- fluids

- nutrition

- mgmt of cough

- avoiding triggers that may worsen cough

87
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what is diphtheria?

infectious disease caused by corynebacterium diphtheriae

88
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how can corynebacterium diphtheriae cause myocarditis & neuropathy?

it has a propensity for mucous membranes, especially the respiratory tract & produces an endotoxin

89
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diphtheria infection may lead to:

- respiratory disease

- cutaneous disease

- asymptomatic carrier state

90
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what are the primary modes of spread of diphtheria?

close contact w/ infectious material from:

- respiratory secretions (direct or via airborne droplet)

or

- skin lesions

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what is the most common form of diphtheria infection?

pharyngeal infection

92
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clinical findings in diphtheria:

- tenacious gray membrane covering the tonsils & pharynx which bleeds w/ scraping

- sore throat

- fever

- malaise

- cervical lymphadenopathy

- low grade fever

<p>- tenacious gray membrane covering the tonsils &amp; pharynx which bleeds w/ scraping</p><p>- sore throat</p><p>- fever</p><p>- malaise</p><p>- cervical lymphadenopathy</p><p>- low grade fever</p>
93
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what is cutaneous diphtheria characterized by?

chronic, nonhealing sores or shallow ulcers w/ a dirty gray membrane

<p>chronic, nonhealing sores or shallow ulcers w/ a dirty gray membrane</p>
94
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how is diphtheria diagnosed?

clinically

- requires culture from respiratory tract secretions or cutaneous lesions & a positive toxin assay to confirm

95
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what does treatment of respiratory diphtheria consist of?

antibiotic therapy & diphtheria antitoxin

96
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abx of choice for diphtheria =

erythromycin or PCN

- alt: azithromycin or clarithromycin

97
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_______________________ due to airway compromise is a major complication of diphtheria & is an important cause of mortality

respiratory failure

98
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diphtheria contacts should be treated w/ ______________ to eradicate carries states

erythromycin

99
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what is epiglottitis?

inflammation of the epiglottis & adjacent supraglottic structures

- w/o tx, can progress to life threatening airway obstruction

100
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infectious epiglottitis is a ____________ of the epiglottis & other adjacent tissues

cellulitis