Psyc 245 Exam 1

What is the definition of a psychological disorder?

A psychological disorder is defined as a psychological dysfunction within an individual that is associated with distress or impairment in functioning, and a response that is not typical or culturally expected.

What are the three key components used to define a psychological disorder?

The three key components are psychological dysfunction, distress or impairment, and atypical or not culturally expected behavior.

Explain psychological dysfunction as a component of a psychological disorder.

Psychological dysfunction refers to a breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning within an individual.

How is distress or impairment defined in the context of psychological disorders?

Distress or impairment refers to subjective suffering caused by the disorder or a significant difficulty functioning across daily roles such as academic, social, or occupational.

What does it mean for a behavior to be 'atypical' or 'not culturally expected' in the definition of a psychological disorder?

It means the behavior strays significantly from the cultural norm or average statistical occurrence, indicating it is unusual or deviates from societal expectations.

What was the Supernatural Tradition's view on the causes of abnormal behavior?

The Supernatural Tradition attributed abnormal behavior to unexplainable forces, demons, witches, or astronomical phenomena, such as 'The Moon and the Stars'.

Who developed the humoral theory and what did it propose?

Hippocrates and Galen developed the humoral theory, which posited that psychological disorders resulted from an imbalance of four bodily fluids or humors: blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm.

What were some treatments based on the humoral theory?

Treatments based on the humoral theory included bloodletting or inducing vomiting to restore the balance of bodily fluids.

What was 'hysteria' historically believed to be?

Hysteria was historically ascribed to physical symptoms without an organic cause, believed to be due to a 'wandering uterus'.

Who was John P. Grey and what was his contribution to the biological tradition?

John P. Grey was a leading American advocate for the biological tradition who argued that insanity always had physical causes. He treated patients with rest, diet, and proper ventilation.

What were the consequences of the biological tradition's emphasis on physical causes for mental illness?

The biological tradition led to a shift away from psychological remedies toward custodial hospital care and physical diagnosis, often neglecting psychological aspects of treatment.

Describe Moral Therapy from the Psychological Tradition.

Moral Therapy was a 19th-century movement that treated institutionalized patients as normally as possible in humane, encouraging environments, emphasizing social interaction and individual attention.

Why did Moral Therapy decline?

Moral Therapy declined due to hospital overcrowding, staff shortages, and the influence of Dorothea Dix's Mental Hygiene Movement, which focused on institutional reform but inadvertently led to larger, less personal asylums.

What is the core focus of Humanistic Theory in psychopathology?

Humanistic Theory, associated with Maslow and Rogers, focused on human potential, personal growth, and self-actualization.

What are key concepts in Carl Rogers' person-centered therapy?

Key concepts include a passive therapist role, empathy, and unconditional positive regard, which involves complete acceptance of the client.

According to Freud's Psychoanalytic Model, what is the Id?

The Id is the source of sexual and aggressive drives (libido), driven by the pleasure principle, and utilizes irrational primary process thinking.

In Freud's model, what is the role of the Ego?

The Ego is the realistic mediator that balances the drives of the Id and the expectations of the Superego. It is driven by the reality principle and utilizes logical secondary process thinking.

What does the Superego represent in Freud's Psychoanalytic Model?

The Superego represents the conscience and moral principles, embodying societal values and ideals.

What are defense mechanisms in the Psychoanalytic Model?

Defense mechanisms are unconscious protective processes marshaled by the Ego to manage anxiety arising from intrapsychic conflicts between the Id, Ego, and Superego.

Name some common defense mechanisms.

Common defense mechanisms include denial, displacement, projection, rationalization, reaction formation, repression, and sublimation.

What is the primary aim of psychoanalytic treatment?

The primary aim of psychoanalytic treatment is to uncover unconscious conflicts through catharsis, which is the release of emotional tension, and insight into these underlying issues.

What are some techniques used in psychoanalytic therapy?

Techniques include free association, where patients say whatever comes to mind, and dream analysis, interpreting the symbolic content of dreams.

Explain transference and countertransference in psychoanalytic therapy.

Transference is when a patient redirects childhood feelings and emotional patterns onto the therapist. Countertransference refers to the therapist's emotional reactions to the patient, often influenced by their own past experiences.

Who are the key figures associated with Classical Conditioning?

Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson are the key figures associated with Classical Conditioning.

Define Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) in classical conditioning.

An Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) is a stimulus that naturally and automatically elicits a response without any prior learning.

What is an Unconditioned Response (UCR)?

An Unconditioned Response (UCR) is the natural, unlearned reaction or response to an unconditioned stimulus.

How does a Conditioned Stimulus (CS) develop in classical conditioning?

A Conditioned Stimulus (CS) is a previously neutral stimulus that, after being repeatedly paired with an Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), acquires the power to elicit a conditioned response.

What is a Conditioned Response (CR)?

A Conditioned Response (CR) is the learned response to a previously neutral, now conditioned, stimulus.

What is extinction in classical conditioning?

Extinction is the process of repeatedly presenting the Conditioned Stimulus (CS) without the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) to gradually eliminate or weaken the Conditioned Response (CR).

What did Watson and Rayner demonstrate with 'Little Albert'?

Watson and Rayner demonstrated conditioned fear in 'Little Albert,' showing that a neutral stimulus (a white rat) could be paired with an aversive stimulus (a loud noise) to elicit a fear response.

What did Mary Cover Jones demonstrate with 'Peter'?

Mary Cover Jones demonstrated fear unlearning or extinction with 'Peter,' showing that conditioned fears could be eliminated through systematic exposure and positive reinforcement.

What is Systematic Desensitization?

Systematic Desensitization is a behavioral therapy technique that involves gradual exposure to a feared stimulus while simultaneously engaging in relaxation techniques to reduce anxiety.

Who are the key figures associated with Operant Conditioning?

Edward Thorndike and B.F. Skinner are the key figures associated with Operant Conditioning.

What is Thorndike's Law of Effect?

Thorndike's Law of Effect states that behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors followed by unpleasant consequences are less likely to be repeated.

Define positive reinforcement.

Positive reinforcement is the process of increasing the likelihood of a behavior by presenting a pleasant or desirable stimulus after the behavior occurs.

Define negative reinforcement.

Negative reinforcement is the process of increasing the likelihood of a behavior by removing or avoiding an aversive or unpleasant stimulus after the behavior occurs.

What is punishment in operant conditioning?

Punishment is the process of decreasing the likelihood of a behavior by presenting an aversive stimulus or removing a pleasant one after the behavior occurs.

What is shaping in operant conditioning?

Shaping is a technique used to teach new behaviors by reinforcing successive approximations toward a desired target behavior.

What is the Multidimensional Integrative Model of psychopathology?

The Multidimensional Integrative Model posits that psychopathology is systemic, stemming from a complex loop of interacting biological, behavioral, cognitive, emotional, social, and developmental influences.

Explain the Diathesis–Stress Model.

The Diathesis–Stress Model suggests that an inherited genetic vulnerability (diathesis) is activated by environmental stress to trigger the onset of a psychological disorder.

What is the Gene–Environment Correlation Model (Reciprocal Model)?

The Gene–Environment Correlation Model proposes that an individual's genetic makeup increases the probability that they will experience certain stressful environmental risk factors, thereby influencing their susceptibility to disorders.

What is epigenetics?

Epigenetics refers to environmental influences, such as maternal care or stress, that can alter gene expression without changing the underlying DNA sequence itself.

How do neurons communicate?

Neurons communicate by sending chemical messages, called neurotransmitters, across the synaptic cleft to receptors on the dendrites of other neurons.

What is an agonist in terms of neurotransmitter activity?

An agonist is a substance that increases the activity of a neurotransmitter, for example, by mimicking its effects or blocking its reuptake.

What is an antagonist in terms of neurotransmitter activity?

An antagonist is a substance that blocks or decreases the activity of a neurotransmitter.

What is an inverse agonist?

An inverse agonist produces effects opposite to those of a neurotransmitter, effectively decreasing its typical activity.

What is the primary function of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)?

GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, primarily responsible for reducing anxiety and arousal.

How do benzodiazepines affect GABA activity?

Benzodiazepines increase GABA activity, which contributes to their anxiety-reducing effects, though long-term use raises addiction concerns.

What is the primary function of Glutamate?

Glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain, involved in learning and memory.

What role does Serotonin (5-HT) play in the brain?

Serotonin regulates behavior, mood, and thought processes. Low levels are often associated with impulsivity and emotional instability.

What is the function of Norepinephrine?

Norepinephrine controls emergency or alarm reactions and various bodily functions, playing a role in the fight-or-flight response.

What is the role of Dopamine in the brain?

Dopamine influences exploratory and pleasure-seeking behaviors and is believed to balance with serotonin in regulating various brain functions.

What is Learned Helplessness, as described by Seligman?

Learned Helplessness occurs when organisms encounter uncontrollable negative events, leading them to stop attempting to cope and developing depression-like states.

What is Social Learning or Modeling, according to Bandura?

Social Learning or Modeling is a process where individuals learn by observing the experiences and consequences of others, rather than through direct experience.

What is Prepared Learning?

Prepared Learning refers to an evolutionary predisposition to learn fears of specific survival-threatening objects, such as snakes or spiders, more readily than fears of modern dangers.

What is implicit memory and the cognitive unconscious?

Implicit memory and the cognitive unconscious refer to the processing and acting on past experiences without conscious recollection. It influences behavior without conscious awareness.

How is implicit memory measured clinically?

Implicit memory is often measured clinically via the Stroop color-naming paradigm, which assesses automatic processing and interference.

Describe the Flight or Fight Response.

The Flight or Fight Response is an emergency alarm reaction that mobilizes the cardiovascular system, causing an adrenaline rush and redirection of blood, to prepare the body to either escape or fend off a perceived threat.

What are the three components of emotion?

The three components of emotion are behavioral, physiological, and cognitive dimensions.

How does anger relate to health outcomes?

Continual hostility and suppressed anger significantly increase an individual's risk of death from heart disease.

What is the impact of social support on health?

Loneliness and a lack of social networks increase an individual's susceptibility to illness and elevate their mortality risk.

What is reliability in the context of evaluating assessment tools?

Reliability refers to the measurement consistency of an assessment tool, either across different raters (inter-rater reliability) or over time (test-retest reliability).

What is validity in the context of evaluating assessment tools?

Validity is the degree to which an assessment tool measures what it is designed to measure. This includes concurrent/descriptive, predictive, construct, and content validity.

What is standardization in clinical assessment?

Standardization involves applying consistent standards across test administration, scoring, and evaluation to ensure uniformity and comparability of results.

What is the purpose of a clinical interview?

A clinical interview examines presenting problems and involves conducting a mental status exam to assess various aspects of a person's psychological functioning.

What are the key components of a mental status exam?

The key components of a mental status exam include appearance and behavior, thought processes (e.g., delusions, ideas of reference), mood and affect, intellectual functioning, and orientation (person, place, time).

What are the two main types of clinical interviews?

Clinical interviews can be unstructured, allowing for flexibility, or semistructured, using a guide like the ADIS-5 to ensure specific areas are covered.

What is behavioral assessment?

Behavioral assessment involves direct observation of an individual's behavior in natural or analogue settings, focusing on the ABCs (Antecedents, Behavior, Consequences).

What is reactivity in behavioral assessment?

Reactivity is the phenomenon where an individual's behavior alters simply because they are being observed or are self-monitoring, potentially affecting the accuracy of the assessment.

What are projective tests in psychological testing?

Projective tests present ambiguous stimuli to individuals, aiming to uncover unconscious processes and underlying conflicts based on their interpretations.

Name two common projective tests.

Two common projective tests are the Rorschach Inkblot Test, often used with Exner's Comprehensive System, and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

What are personality inventories?

Personality inventories are empirically derived self-report questionnaires, such as the MMPI or MMPI-2, designed to assess a wide range of personality traits and psychological symptoms.

What are validity scales in personality inventories like the MMPI?

Validity scales (e.g., L, K, F) in personality inventories are designed to detect response styles that might invalidate the test results, such as faking good, faking bad, or being overly defensive.

What is the purpose of intelligence or IQ testing?

Intelligence or IQ testing, using instruments like the Stanford-Binet, WAIS-IV, or WISC-V, is primarily designed to predict academic performance and assess cognitive abilities.

What does psychophysiological assessment measure?

Psychophysiological assessment tracks brain and nervous system activity, using methods like electroencephalography (EEG) for electrical activity or biofeedback to monitor physiological responses.

What is the difference between structural and functional neuroimaging?

Structural neuroimaging (e.g., CAT, MRI) provides images of the brain's anatomy, while functional neuroimaging (e.g., PET, SPECT, fMRI/BOLD-fMRI) maps brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow or metabolism.

Describe the categorical approach to diagnostic classification.

The categorical approach views psychological disorders as pure, classical categories with distinct, non-overlapping causes, meaning an individual either has the disorder or does not.

Describe the dimensional approach to diagnostic classification.

The dimensional approach involves rating symptom severity along a continuous scale, recognizing that symptoms can exist to varying degrees rather than being simply present or absent.

Which approach does the DSM-5 primarily use for diagnostic classification?

The DSM-5 primarily uses a prototypical approach, which is a categorical system that identifies essential core characteristics of a disorder while allowing for a range of variable nonessential symptoms.

What are some key features of the DSM-5?

The DSM-5 is atheoretical regarding etiology, requires symptoms to cause clinically significant distress or impairment, incorporates medical/substance rule-outs, and faces ongoing challenges with comorbidity and labeling criticisms.

What is the difference between a theory and a hypothesis?

A theory is a broad framework of corroborated or disconfirmed beliefs, while a hypothesis is a clear, precise, and testable educated guess derived from a theory.

What is a Dependent Variable (DV) in research?

The Dependent Variable (DV) is the outcome factor in an experiment that is expected to change or be predicted by the independent variable.

What is an Independent Variable (IV) in research?

The Independent Variable (IV) is the factor that is manipulated by the researcher or used to predict changes in the dependent variable.

What is internal validity in research?

Internal validity refers to the confidence that changes observed in the dependent variable are indeed caused by the independent variable and not by extraneous factors or confounds.

How is internal validity protected in research?

Internal validity is protected using control groups, randomization of participants to conditions, and analogue models to simulate real-world conditions under controlled settings.

What is external validity in research?

External validity refers to the generalizability of research results to outside settings, different populations, and real-world situations beyond the specific study conditions.

Distinguish between statistical significance and clinical significance.

Statistical significance refers to the mathematical probability that a result occurred by chance (typically p < .05), while clinical significance refers to the meaningful real-world impact or effect size of the findings.

What is the Patient Uniformity Myth?

The Patient Uniformity Myth is the inaccurate assumption in research that all participants within a diagnostic group are homogeneous, thereby masking important individual differences in treatment response or symptom presentation.

Describe the case study method in research.

The case study method involves an intensive qualitative study of an individual or a small group, providing rich descriptive insight but lacking scientific control and often having limited internal and external validity.

What is correlational research?

Correlational research quantifies statistical relationships (r from -1 to +1) between variables as they occur naturally, offering good external validity but unable to establish causality.

Why can't correlational research establish causality?

Correlational research cannot establish causality due to the directionality problem (not knowing which variable causes the other) and the third variable problem (an unmeasured variable potentially influencing both observed variables).

What is epidemiology in research?

Epidemiology is a type of correlational research that studies the incidence (new cases) and prevalence (total active cases) of disorders within a population.

What is the primary purpose of experimental research?

The primary purpose of experimental research is to manipulate independent variables to establish causal relationships between variables.

What are Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs) and why are they considered the 'gold standard'?

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs) are experimental designs considered the gold standard for treatment outcome studies because they utilize placebo control groups and double-blind controls to eliminate allegiance bias and expectation effects, thereby enhancing internal validity.

Distinguish between treatment process research and treatment outcome research.

Treatment process research explores why and how a therapy works, focusing on the mechanisms of change, while treatment outcome research measures what changes occur post-treatment, focusing on the effectiveness of the intervention.

What is comparative treatment research?

Comparative treatment research involves the direct head-to-head evaluation of different therapeutic interventions to determine which is most effective for specific conditions.

What is a key characteristic of single-case experimental designs?

A key characteristic of single-case experimental designs, pioneered by Skinner, is the use of repeated measurement of an individual's behavior over time.

Describe the Withdrawal Design (ABA) in single-case experimental research.

The Withdrawal Design (ABA) involves establishing a baseline (A), introducing a treatment (B), and then returning to the baseline condition (A) to confirm that the treatment caused the observed changes in behavior.

What is a Multiple Baseline Design?

A Multiple Baseline Design staggers the onset of a treatment across different settings, behaviors, or individuals, demonstrating that the treatment is responsible for changes only when it is introduced.

What do family studies in genetic research examine?

Family studies examine the prevalence of traits or disorders in first-degree relatives of a proband (the individual with the disorder) to assess genetic influence.