Evolution Final

Which of the following is true regarding Lamarck?

a. He promoted extinction and the inheritance of acquired traits

b He promoted spontaneous generation and the inheritance of acquired traits

c. he promoted spontaneous generation and natural selection

d. he promoted natural selection and the inheritance of acquired of traits

e. he promoted extinction and natural selection

b. He promoted spontaneous generation and the inheritance of acquired traits

Which of the following is true in regards to the formation of Heavy elements?

A. hydrogen and helium are always formed first bc they are the heaviest elements.

b. Heavy elements are formed during fusion events that take place in the stars

c. Heavy elements are formed during fusion events that take place in the earths core

d. Heavy elements are formed during fission events that take place in the earths core

e. hydrogen and helium are always formed last because they are the heaviest of the elements.

b. Heavy elements are formed during fusion events that take place in the stars

The major coal deposits of the world:

a. were formed in the Cenozoic by angiosperm forests

b. were formed in the Mesozoic by Gymnosperm forests

c. were formed in the Precambrian by early protists

d. Were formed in the Paleozoic by lycophyte forests

e. were formed recently in the last few million years by early human agriculture

d. Were formed in the Paleozoic by lycophyte forests

The Scale of Nature was created by:

a. Plato and organized life in order of the most (lowest) to the least advanced

b. Darwin and organized life in order of a timescale

c. Lyell and organized life in order of a timescale

D.Aristotle and organized life in order of the least (lowest) to the most advanced

e. Lamarck and organized life in order of the least (lowest) to the most advanced

D. Aristotle and organized life in order of the least (lowest) to the most advanced

Which of the following is true about feathers in dinosaurs?

a. there were multiple types

b. they were only present in the plant-eating species

C. they were made of keratin

d . a andc

e. a, b, and

d . a and c

6. The age of our solar system is:

a. 14 billion years old

b. 10 billion years old

C. 4.6 billion years old

d. 2.5 billion years old

e. 4.6 million years old

C. 4.6 billion years old

Which of the following is true regarding dinosaurs:

A. they were all carnivorous

B. they formed 2 major groups: Ornithischia and Saurischia

C.they had a flat, sprawling posture

d. they were poikilothermic

e. they had a large surface to volume ratio

B. they formed 2 major groups: Ornithischia and Saurischia

8. Why is carbon more conducive to life than silicon?

a. It is more common and easily hydrogen bonds, which is essential for the structure and replication of DNA

B. It is more common and produces a solid rock as the waste product

C. It is more common and only has highly reduced compounds (no highly oxidized compounds)

D. It is rarer, but easily hydrogen bonds, which is essential for the structure and replication of DNA

E. It is rarer and only has highly reduced compounds (no highly oxidized compounds)

a. It is more common and easily hydrogen bonds, which is essential for the structure and replication of DNA

9. What caused grass to become ever-growing in the Cenozoic?

a. Grazing by perissodactyls and artiodactyls

b. Grazing by Afrotherians

c. Grazing by monotremes and marsupials

d. Grazing by artiodactyls and marsupials

e. Grazing by perissodactyls and marsupials

a. Grazing by perissodactyls and artiodactyls

10. Oxygen:

a. Was abundant in the atmosphere of early Earth (> 4 bya) because it was produced by cyanobacteria

b.Was abundant in the atmosphere of early Earth (> 4 bya) because it was produced byvolcanoes

C. was not present until ~2.3 bya when it could be produced by cyanobacteria

D. Was not present until ~2.3 bya when it could be produced by land plants

E. Was not present until ~2.3 bya when it could be produced by volcanoes

C. was not present until ~2.3 bya when it could be produced by cyanobacteria

11. Archaeopteryx is:

a. the earliest recorded dinosaur, and from the Paleozoic Era

B. the earliest recorded dinosaur, and from the Mesozoic Era

C. the earliest recorded dinosaur, and from the Cenozoic Era

D. the earliest recorded bird, and from the Paleozoic Era

E. the earliest recorded bird, and from the Mesozoic Era

E. the earliest recorded bird, and from the mesozoic era

12. Which of the following is an arthropod adaptation for colonization of land that is correctly paired with its purpose?

a. An extremely large body to maximize the surface to volume ratio

B. Internal fertilization to aid in movement on land

C. An extremely small body size to minimize the surface area to volume ratio

D. Trachea and spiracles to aid in respiration

e. An exoskeleton to increase evaporation

D. Trachea and spiracles to aid in respiration

13. During the life span of a star, elements heavier than this element are made during a supernova

A. Nickle

B. Iron

C. Carbon

D. Silicon

E. Helium

b. iron

14. Which of the following statements about evolution is true?

a. Evolution has not been recognized by the catholic church

B. Evolution is the heritable change in a population through time

C. Evolution is universal on Earth but unlikely to operate on other planets

d.Evolution is the change in extinction frequency of a population through time

E. Many things in biology do not make sense in the light of evolution

B. Evolution is the heritable change in a population through time

15. Which of the following is least likely to preserve the DNA of an organism?

a. mummification

b. Fossilization in amber

c. Freezing in ice

d. Preservation in a tar pit

E. A perfectly preserved cast

E. A perfectly preserved cast

16. What is the significance of Lagerstätten?

a. They are rare sites that preserve a large diversity of organisms

b. They are common sites that preserve several key organisms

C. They are common sites that preserve ancient coral reefs

d. They are rare sites that preserve ancient coral reefs

e. They are common sites that preserve a large diversity of organisms

a. They are rare sites that preserve a large diversity of organisms

17. The Paleozoic Era ranged from:

a. 66-0 mya and the land was dominated by reptiles

b. 251-66 mya and the land was dominated by mammals

c . 542-251 mya and the fossils of most animal phyla first appeared

d. 66-0 mya and the land was dominated by mammals

e. 251-66 mya and the land was dominated by dinosaurs

c . 542-251 mya and the fossils of most animal phyla first appeared

18. Why was the surface of the early Earth not frozen despite orbiting around a cold sun?

a. Greenhouse gasses released from volcanos trapped heat in the atmosphere

B. Molten rock from volcanos warmed the land surface

C. Heat from the Earth's mantle warmed the oceans making it impossible for them to freeze

D. A collision of an asteroid boiled the oceans and all the heat became trapped in the atmosphere

E. Carbon dioxide created by cyanobacteria trapped heat in the atmosphere

a. Greenhouse gasses released from volcanos trapped heat in the atmosphere

19. The Earth at the end of the Paleozoic was:

a. One continent and one ocean

b. Undergoing extinctions due to a widely-accepted asteroid impact

c. A snowball Earth (ice covered)

d. Characterized by many continents separated by ocean

e. Dominated by angiosperms

a. One continent and one ocean

20. Life based on carbon is more likely than life based on silicon because:

a. Carbon forms molecules that readily hydrogen bond

b.Carbon is difficult to oxidize

C. Carbon is difficult t o reduce

d. Silicon cannot form a strong covalent bond with oxygen

E. Carbon compounds are equally as abundant as silicon compounds in space (e.g. gas clouds)

a. Carbon forms molecules that readily hydrogen bond

21. Humans are:

a. Endothermic homeotherms

b. Ectothermic poikilotherms

C. Endothermicpoikilotherms

d. Ectothermichomeotherms

e. Homeothermic poikilotherms

a. Endothermic homeotherms

22. Life would probably not arise on Earth today because:

a. The deep sea vents are no longer hot enough

B. The atmosphere is too reducing

C. Global warming has raised temperature to high levels

D. Ozone blocks UV rays so there is no energy available to form bonds

E. The atmosphere is too oxidizing

E. The atmosphere is too oxidizing

23. Which of the following was NOT used as evidence for the existence of tectonic plates?

a. The observation that earthquakes occur along edges of plates

B. The discovery that the ocean floor is nearly as old as Earth itself (4.6 billion years)

C, Mirror-like patterns magnetic polarity in rocks on the ocean floor

D. The shapes of continents and how they look as though they could fit together

E. The discovery of fossils of the same organisms on different continents where they might have joined

B. The discovery that the ocean floor is nearly as old as Earth itself (4.6 billion years)

24. Ribozymes:

a. Are protein catalysts

b. Are DNA catalysts

C. Are RNA catalysts

d. Are hybrids of proteins and RNA

e. Are hybrids of proteins and DNA

C. Are RNA catalysts

25. Cell formation in the origin of life:

A. Would have been the most difficult step

B. Would have been easy because abundant protein molecules would have formed vesicles

C. Would have been easy because abundant RNA molecules would have formed vesicles

D. Would have been easy because abundant DNA molecules would have formed vesicles

E. Would have been easy because abundant amphiphilic molecules would have formed vesicles

E. Would have been easy because abundant amphiphilic molecules would have formed vesicles

26. The principle of uniformitarianism is the idea that:

A. natural selection and Mendelian genetics should be integrated, and was developed by Lyell

b. galaxies are moving away from each other at a uniform rate, and was developed by Lyell

C. galaxies are moving away from each other at a uniform rate, and was developed by Fisher

D. physical processes have not changed through time, and was developed by Lyell

E. physical processes have not changed through time, and was developed by Fisher

D. physical processes have not changed through time, and was developed by Lyell

27. The Miller-Urey experiment determined that:

A. oxygen was an essential element for the creation of the building blocks of life

B. only conditions on another planet, not the conditions we know occurred on early Earth, could have made the building blocks of life

C. only lab conditions, not the conditions we know occurred on early Earth, could have made the building blocks of life

D. the conditions we know occurred on early Earth could have made the building blocks of life, but it would have been difficult with inflexible starting conditions

e. the conditions we know occurred on early Earth could have easily made the building blocks of life with flexible starting conditions

e. the conditions we know occurred on early Earth could have easily made the building blocks of life with flexible starting conditions

28. Monotremes are:

a. Early dinosaurs with a single horn

B. Mammal-like reptiles

c. Birds that lay a single egg

d. Birds that are flightless

E. Mammals that lay eggs

E. Mammals that lay eggs

29. The Mesozoic Era ranged from:

A. 66-0 mya and the land was dominated by reptiles

B. 251-66 mya and the land was dominated by mammals

C. 542-251 mya and the fossils of most animal phyla first appeared

D. 66-0 mya and the land was dominated by mammals

E. 251-66 mya and the land was dominated by dinosaurs

E. 251-66 mya and the land was dominated by dinosaurs

30. Which of the following is true about dark energy and dark matter?

A. Dark energy and dark matter have equal amounts of mass

B. Dark matter contributes to the expansion of the universe while dark energy does not

C. Dark energy contributes to the contraction of the universe while dark matter does not

D. Dark matter and dark energy both lack mass

E. Dark energy contributes to the expansion of the universe while dark matter does not

e. Dark energy contributes to the expansion of the universe while dark matter does not

31. The likely source location for the origin of Earth life was (from most likely to least likely):

A. Our solar system > another solar system > Earth

B. Earth > our solar system › another solar system

C. Another solar system > Earth > Our solar system

d. Earth > a n o t h e r solar s y s t e m › our solar system

e Our solar system > Earth > another solar system

B. Earth > our solar system › another solar system

32. How were the Himalayas formed?

a. subduction of an oceanic plate under a continental plate

B. subduction of a continental plate under an oceanic plate

C. subduction of a continent under a continent

D. a mid-oceanic ridge

E. Asia drifted over a hot-spot

C. subduction of a continent under a continent

33. Which of the following is false regarding Mendel?

a. He came up with the correct method of heredity

b . He found conclusive proof of blending inheritance

c. His supporters believed in the importance of genetics over selection for evolution

d. Mendel's work was largely unnoticed for decades

e. Mendel described the hereditary factors he discovered as "dominant" and "recessive"

b . He found conclusive proof of blending inheritance

34. Why were the Modern Synthesis and population genetics theory proposed much later than Darwin's Origin of Species?

A. Scientific research takes a long time

B. Three geneticists independently proposed the theory

C. Mendelian genetics and natural selection were not compatible so an alternate theory had to be proposed

D. Mendel's work wasn't rediscovered until 1900

E. Mendel's work was not completed until 1900

D. Mendel's work wasn't rediscovered until 1900

35. Which of the following pieces of evidence supports the Big Bang Theory?

a. The temperature between galaxies is absolute zero because of cosmic microwave background (CMB)

b. The galaxies of the universe are not evenly dispersed

C. The absorption line wavelengths from distant galaxies are shorter than those of closer galaxies

d. The ratio of hydrogen and helium in the universe is roughly 75% and 25%, respectively

e . The rotation of the galaxies

d. The ratio of hydrogen and helium in the universe is roughly 75% and 25%, respectively

36. The earliest fishes:

a. Had jaws and a living representative is a lamprey

b . Lacked jaws and a living representative is a lamprey

c. Lacked jaws and a living representative is a shark

d. Had jaws and a living representative is a shark

e. Lacked jaws and a living representative is a placoderm

b . Lacked jaws and a living representative is a lamprey

37. Which of the following is true regarding Georges Cuvier?

A. Although he believed in creationism and the biblical flood, the fossils of extinct taxa that he discovered helped develop the theory of evolution

B. He denied the theory of creationism and the fossils of extinct taxa that he discovered helped to establish the theory of evolution

C. He was a strong proponent of the theory of evolution and defended Darwin against many criticisms

D. He believed that organisms changed over time through the inheritance of acquired characteristics

E. Throughout his life he intended to prove that organisms changed over time and was eventually convicted of heresy

A. Although he believed in creationism and the biblical flood, the fossils of extinct taxa that he discovered helped develop the theory of evolution

38. Why does the fossil record represent the Northern Hemisphere better than the Southern Hemisphere?

a. More organisms historically lived in the Northern Hemisphere and it has better conditions for preservation than the Southern

b. More organisms historically lived in the Southern hemisphere, however, the Northern has better conditions for preservation

c. This is the result of a bias in the fossil record, with the Northern Hemisphere having more high-elevation

sedimentary rock and therefore more fossils

d . This is the result of a collection bias, with more scientists studying fossils in the Northern Hemisphere

e. This is the result of a bias in the fossil record, with the Northern Hemisphere enjoying an ideal climate

d . This is the result of a collection bias, with more scientists studying fossils in the Northern Hemisphere

39. The latest (most recent) time for the origin of life on Earth was:

a. 4.0 billion years ago because evidence of life is known after that time

b. 4.0 billion years ago because the atmosphere has been oxidizing since then

e . 4.5 billion years ago because evidence of life is known after that time

d. 4.5 billion years ago because the atmosphere has been oxidizing since then

e. 14 billion years ago because the planet solidified at that time

a. 4.0 billion years ago because evidence of life is known after that time

40. Amniotes have:

a. Four fingers, five toes, and lungs

b. An exoskeleton and jointed appendages

c. Scaly skin (keratin) and produce an amniotic egg

d. Breathable skin and produce an amniotic egg

e. Lungs and an exoskeleton

c. Scaly skin (keratin) and produce an amniotic egg

41. Which of the following is false regarding aquatic reptiles?

a. Mesosaurs and Plesiosaurs are examples of aquatic reptiles

b. The long-necked plesiosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs

c, Ichthyosaurs resembled a shark or dolphin

d. Mosasaurs were huge aquatic lizards and are relatives of monitor lizards

e. Plesiosaurs disappeared 66 million years ago when an asteroid hit the Earth

b. The long-necked plesiosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs

42. What is true regarding early plant adaptations to terrestrial environments?

a. A waxy cuticle prevented herbivory by terrestrial herbivores

B. Stomata allowed for the direct release of excess heat

C. Stems made of the polymer lignin deterred herbivory because they cannot be digested

D. lowers and fruit made plants more attractive to herbivores

E. Pollen allowed reproduction in dry environments by wind dispersal to female plants

E. Pollen allowed reproduction in dry environments by wind dispersal to female plants

43. What three things are needed for natural selection?

a . Uniformity of traits of individuals, genetic inheritance of traits, and survival of all individuals

B. Differences among traits of individuals, genetic inheritance of traits, and an excess number

of individuals leading to the death of some

C. Differences among traits of individuals, a lack of inheritance of traits, and an excess number

of individuals leading to the death of some

D. differences among traits of individuals, genetic inheritance of traits, and survival of all individuals

E. Uniformity of traits of individuals, genetic inheritance of traits, and an excess number of

individuals leading to death of some

B. Differences among traits of individuals, genetic inheritance of traits, and an excess number

44. What type of rock is the most difficult to date and why?

a. igneous rock because it is too old

b. Igneous rock because it is too young

C. Sedimentary rock because it was previously melted

D. Sedimentary rock because it will give multiple dates

E. Sedimentary rock because the fragments are too small

D. Sedimentary rock because it will give multiple dates

45. About interstellar obects:

A. They have never been recorded in our solar system

b. A few have been recorded in recent years, but no evidence of life has been confirmed

c. A few have been recorded in recent years, with one confirmed as an alien spacecraft

C.Hundreds have been recorded in recent years, with several confirmed as an alien spacecrafts

e. Hundreds have been recorded in recent years, but no evidence of life has been confirmed

b. A few have been recorded in recent years, but no evidence of life has been confirmed

46. The Modern Synthesis joined:

a. Darwin's theory of natural selection and Buffon's theory that the Earth is old.

b. Darwin's theory of blending inheritance and Lyell's theory of continuous change.

c . Lyell's theory of continuous change and Buffon's theory that the Earth is old.

D. Darwin's theory of natural selection and Mendel's particulate inheritance.

e. Lyell's theory of continuous change and Mendel's particulate inheritance.

D. Darwin's theory of natural selection and Mendel's particulate inheritance.

47. Hot spots:

A. move with the plates, and originate from deep in the Earth's core

B. move with the plates, and originate from deep in the Earth's mantle

C. are stationary with respect to the plates, and originate from deep in the Earth's mantle

D. are stationary with respect to the plates, and originate from deep in the Earth's core

E. are areas of hot, molten rock near the center of continents

C. are stationary with respect to the plates, and originate from deep in the Earth's mantle

48. The following areas were part of the southern supercontinent Gondwana:

a. Asia and India

b. Asia, India, and South America

C. Africa and India

d. Africa and Asia

e. North and South America

C. Africa and India

49. Which of the following is most likely to be preserved in the fossil record

A. A large animal found in shallow, marine areas

b. A small animal found in the arctic

c. A soft bodied organism found in the tropics

d. A hard bodied organism found in the mountains

e. A small animal found in the tropics

A. A large animal found in shallow, marine areas

50. In Darwin's theory of evolution, blending inheritance was:

A. Correctly used as the mechanism of how traits are passed from parent to offspring

B. An idea borrowed from Alfred Russel Wallace that later proved to be valid

C. Incorrectly used to explain intermediates in evolution

D. Correctly used to explain intermediates in evolution

e. Incorrectly used as the mechanism of how traits are passed from parent to offspring

e. Incorrectly used as the mechanism of how traits are passed from parent to offspring

51. What are the three steps used in Polymerase Chain Reaction, in order?

a. Extension, annealing, and denaturation

b. Annealing, extension, and denaturation

c. Extension, denaturation, and annealing

d. Denaturation, annealing, and extension

e.Annealing, denaturation, and extension

d. Denaturation, annealing, and extension

52. What is true about types of mutations?

a. Deletions are the most common and they cause frameshifts

b. Substitutions are the most common and they cause frameshifts

c. Substitutions are the most common and they do not cause frameshifts

d. Deletions are the most common and they do not cause frameshifts

e. Inversions are the most common and they cause frameshifts

c. Substitutions are the most common and they do not cause frameshifts

53. Which of the following is correct regarding peramorphosis?

a. It is arrested development and late maturation

b. It is arrested development and no maturation

c. It is accelerated development and early maturation

d. It is accelerated development and late maturation

e. It is arrested development and early maturation

d. It is accelerated development and late maturation

54. In evolutionary analyses of DNA sequence, multiple hits are hidden changes from:

a. Single substitutions that cause multiple statistical errors

b. Single substitutions that change the amino acid

c. Repeated substitutions at the same nucleotide site that change the amino acid

d. Repeated substitutions at the same nucleotide site that cause statistical error

e. Repeated substitutions at the same nucleotide site that enhance statistical accuracy

d. Repeated substitutions at the same nucleotide site that cause statistical error

55. When would you expect the rate of non-synonymous substitution to be higher than the rate of synonymous substitution?

a. During inbreeding

b. When a gene is highly expressed

c. When a gene is under strong selection to changed.

b. When a gene is non-codinge.

c. During speciation

c. When a gene is under strong selection to changed.

56. Two major evolutionary trends in the transition to mammals involved:

a. Jaw bone reduction from several to one bone and decrease in jaw muscle size

b. Jaw bone reduction from several to one bone and increase in jaw muscle size

c. Jaw bone expansion from one to several bones and increase in jaw muscle size

d. Jaw bone expansion from one to several bones and decrease in jaw muscle size

e. Jaw bone enlargement in size and increase in jaw muscle size

b. Jaw bone reduction from several to one bone and increase in jaw muscle size

57. How would you determine the allele frequencies of a gene given the phenotypic frequencies?

a. The dominant allele frequency is the square root of the recessive phenotype frequency; the other allele is one minus that frequency

b. The dominant allele frequency is the square root of the dominant phenotype frequency; the other allele is one minus that frequency

c. The recessive allele frequency is the square root of the recessive phenotype frequency; the other allele is one minus that frequency

d. The recessive allele frequency is the square root of the recessive phenotype frequency; the other allele is one minus the dominant phenotype frequency

e. The allele frequencies are the same as the phenotype frequencies

c. The recessive allele frequency is the square root of the recessive phenotype frequency; the other allele is one minus that frequency

58. Which of the following will give you the heterozygote genotype frequency for one gene?

a. Multiply each allele frequency by itself, and then sum those quantities; then subtract that value from one

b. Sum the allele frequencies and then multiply that value by two

c. Multiply each allele frequency by itself, and then multiply those two quantities

d. Multiply the allele frequencies by each other

e. Sum the allele frequencies and subtract that value from one

a. Multiply each allele frequency by itself, and then sum those quantities; then subtract that value from one

59. The origin of alpha and beta subunits of hemoglobin most likely was the result of:

a. A speciation event

b. A gene duplication event

c. A horizontal transfer event

d. A mutation

e. A substitution

b. A gene duplication event

60. Cope's rule is:

a. A hypothesis that species cope better with the environment over time

b. An observed trend of decreasing size among species of animals over evolutionary time

c. An observed trend of increasing size among species of animals over evolutionary time

d. An observed trend of maintaining the same size among species of animals over evolutionary time

e. A hypothesis that one species in each animal group decreases in size over time

c. An observed trend of increasing size among species of animals over evolutionary time

61. Which Hardy-Weinberg terms represent heterozygote frequencies?

a. q and p

b. p², 2pq, and q²

c. p² and q²

d. 2pq only

e. q² only

d. 2pq only

62. If two genes diverged, and then two species diverged, this would be expected:

a. Both species would possess both genes

b. One species would possess one gene and the other species would possess the other gene

c. One species would possess both genes and the other species would lack both genes

d. Both species would possess the original gene

e. Both species would lack both genes

a. Both species would possess both genes

63. How are different species of bacteria recognized taxonomically?

a. By their smell

b. By their taste

c. By their pathogenicity

d. By the temperature they best survive under

e. By what they can and cannot grow on

e. By what they can and cannot grow on

64. Changes in allele frequencies through migration occurs by:

a. Random fluctuations in allele frequencies in a population

b. Adding new alleles into a population

c. Removing heterozygotes during each generation

d. Removing traits from a population that have a lower fitness

e. Removing homozygotes during each generation

b. Adding new alleles into a population

65. The synonymy of a taxon is where:

a. Alternative names are listed that are equally valid under the rules

b. Supplementary data are presented for the diagnosis

c. Additional localities of the species are presented

d. Museum collection numbers are listed

e. Other names are listed that apply to the same taxon but are not considered valid under the rules

e. Other names are listed that apply to the same taxon but are not considered valid under the rules

66. Genetic drift results in which of the following?

a. Increase of variation over time and genetic divergence between populations

b. Loss of variation over time and genetic convergence between populations

c. Increasing variation over time of populations

d. Increase of variation over time and genetic convergence between populations

e. Loss of variation over time and genetic divergence between populations

e. Loss of variation over time and genetic divergence between populations

67. What are two assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

a. Mutations and migration are occurring

b. Mating is random and there is a finite population size

c. Mating is random and no mutations are occurring

d. Selection and mutations are occurring

e. Selection and migration are occurring

c. Mating is random and no mutations are occurring

68. Molecular clocks:

a. Generally show younger dates of divergence than the fossil record

b. Work because most substitutions are advantageous

c. Can show different slopes for genes that have different rates of substitution

d. Can be calibrated if you know the time the last mutation occurred

e. Are possible because mutation is regular (clock-like) and not random

c. Can show different slopes for genes that have different rates of substitution

69. ACCTG to ACTTG is an example of:

a. A deletion and a transition

b. A substitution and a transition

c. An insertion and a transversion

d. A substitution and a transversion

e. A deletion and a transversion

b. A substitution and a transition

70. Which of the following is true about DNA barcoding?

a. It is a method that uses a short, unique genetic sequence to identify an organism as belonging to a species

b. It is a method that involves incorporating a chemical marker into an organism's tissue in order to track migratory movements

c. It is a method that uses a complete genome sequence to identify an organism as belonging to a species

d. It is a method that produces bands of melanin pigment on an animal's skin, allowing them to be "scanned"

e. It is a method that uses an electron microscope to scan the DNA of any organism and identify the species

a. It is a method that uses a short, unique genetic sequence to identify an organism as belonging to a species

71. What is the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)?

a. They are rare and are the "alleles" that evolution acts upon

b. They are common and are the "alleles" that evolution acts upon

c. They only include advantageous mutations

d. They only include deleterious mutations

e. They only include neutral mutations

b. They are common and are the "alleles" that evolution acts upon

72. Which answer lists three mechanisms that can immediately affect allele frequencies at the population level?

a. Deletions, inversions, selection

b. Mutation, selection, genetic drift

c. Non-random mating, inversions, epistasis

d. Pleiotropy, mutation, inversions

e. Epistasis, pleiotropy, deletions

b. Mutation, selection, genetic drift

73. Which statement about the redundancy in the universal genetic code is true?

a. There are an equal number of codon combinations and amino acids, and the third position of every codon is usually the most variable

b. There are more codon combinations than amino acids, and the third position of every codon is usually the most variable

c. There are more codon combinations than amino acids, and all codon positions can be varied to always produce the same amino acid

d. There are more codon combinations than amino acids, and all positions in a codon are equally variable

e. There are more amino acids than codons, and all positions in a codon are equally variable

b. There are more codon combinations than amino acids, and the third position of every codon is usually the most variable

74. This section is used to explain how the new species is distinct from others:

a. Etymology

b. Diagnosis

c. Description

d. Natural History

b. Diagnosis

75. Which Hardy-Weinberg terms represent allele frequencies?

a. q and p

b. p², 2pq, and q²

c. p² and q²

d. 2pq only

e. q² only

a. q and p

76. Which of the following characters would be an example of positive allometry?

a. Surface area of a salamander

b. Lung volume in mammals

c. Skeletal mass of animals

d. Hemoglobin mass in mammals

e. Surface area of a dinosaur

c. Skeletal mass of animals

77. Universal primers are normally used to bind to:

a. Conserved regions of genes and permit the amplification of a gene in diverse species

b. Conserved regions of genes and permit the amplification of a gene in a single species

c. Conserved regions of genes and permit the repair of that gene sequence

d. Variable regions of genes and permit the amplification of a gene in diverse species

e. Variable regions of genes and permit the repair of that gene sequence

a. Conserved regions of genes and permit the amplification of a gene in diverse species

78. What is true about substitution rates?

a. A lower substitution rate indicates greater selection

b. A higher substitution rate indicates greater selection

c. A lower substitution rate indicates neutral evolution

d. A high substitution rate indicates neutral evolution

e. An intermediate substitution rate is equivalent to the mutation rate

a. A lower substitution rate indicates greater selection

79. The name of Philadelphia's natural history museum is:

a. The Philadelphia Museum of Natural History

b. The Smithsonian Museum of Natural History

c. Philadelphia Museum of Art

d. The Barnes Foundation

e. The Academy of Natural Sciences

e. The Academy of Natural Sciences

80. Comparing chimpanzee and human skulls:

a. The adult human is more similar to the juvenile chimp than the adult chimp is to the juvenile human

b. The adult human is more similar to the adult chimp than to the juvenile human

c. The adult human is more similar to the juvenile chimp than to the juvenile human

d. The adult human is more similar to the juvenile human than the adult chimp is to the juvenile chimp

e. There is no difference between human and chimpanzee skulls

d. The adult human is more similar to the juvenile human than the adult chimp is to the juvenile chimp

81. Heterochrony describes evolutionary changes in the characteristics of a:

a. Species based on physiological timing

b. Heterozygote based on physiological timing

c. Heterozygote based on ecological timing

d. Species based on ecological timing

e. Species based on developmental timing

e. Species based on developmental timing

82. Heuristic methods are used in constructing trees because they provide shortcuts for finding the:

a. Longest tree, necessary because of the large number of possible trees

b. Longest tree, necessary because of long DNA sequences

c. Shortest tree, necessary because of the large number of possible trees

d. Shortest tree, necessary because of long DNA sequences

e. Shortest tree, necessary because of bootstrapping

c. Shortest tree, necessary because of the large number of possible trees

83. Allometry can be characterized as:

a. Proportional change in one sequence relative to another sequence in evolution

b. Non-proportional change in one character relative to another character in evolution

c. Proportional change in one character relative to another character in evolution

d. Non-proportional change in one sequence relative to another sequence in evolution

e. Proportional change in one behavior relative to another behavior in evolution

b. Non-proportional change in one character relative to another character in evolution

84. Synonymous mutations:

a. Always occur at the first position

b. Always occur at the second position

c. Always occur at the third position

d. Never occur at the first position

e. Never occur at the second position

e. Never occur at the second position

85. The molecular study of fungi determined that the group defined by two nuclei:

a. Is a chytrid

b. Has a flagellum

c. Is paraphyletic

d. Is polyphyletic

e. Is monophyletic

e. Is monophyletic

86. What is the purpose of the type specimens of a species?

a. There is no current purpose

b. The species name can only be used with the types, and no other individuals

c. To represent the species if there is any future confusion in names

d. They are the only used for the diagnosis section

e. They are the only used for the natural history section

c. To represent the species if there is any future confusion in names

87. When going from smaller to larger species, the surface-to-volume ratio changes:

a. Decreases, positive allometric growth

b. Increases, positive allometric growth

c. Decreases, negative allometric growth

d. Increases, negative allometric growth

e. Remains constant

c. Decreases, negative allometric growth

88. What best describes how the Law of Priority governs the naming of an organism?

a. The most recent valid name must be used, if you decide to recognize that taxon

b. The most recent valid name must be used, in any circumstance

c. The earliest valid name must be used, in any circumstance

d. The earliest valid name must be used, if you decide to recognize that taxon

e. The most commonly used name of a species is the correct one

d. The earliest valid name must be used, if you decide to recognize that taxon

89. Developmental genes such as the homeotic (HOX) genes are important in evolution because they:

a. Can cause major morphological changes quickly

b. Explain most speciation events

c. Result in small, incremental molecular changes, without affecting morphology

d. Can cause major molecular changes quickly, without affecting morphology

e. Result in small, incremental morphological changes

a. Can cause major morphological changes quickly

90. What is the meaning of the taxonomic term paraphyletic?

a. A group name that includes a single common ancestor and all descendants

b. A group name that includes a single common ancestor and some but not all descendants

c. A group name that includes two or more common ancestors

d. A tree that includes a single common ancestor and all descendants

e. A tree that includes a single common ancestor and some but not all descendants

b. A group name that includes a single common ancestor and some but not all descendants

91. When constructing a phylogenetic tree, which method is most likely to be correct?

a. Selecting the tree that joins species from the same region

b. Selecting the tree that minimizes change in the characters

c. Selecting the tree that maximizes change in the characters

d. Selecting the tree with the average amount of change in the characters

e. Selecting the tree that joins species that are the same color

b. Selecting the tree that minimizes change in the characters

92. How was sequence obtained from the Tasmanian Tiger?

a. Saliva

b. Fresh tissue

c. Nose swab

d. Blood

e. Old skins

e. Old skins

93. If given the allele frequencies of two genes, what would be the frequency of the combined genotype recessive for both genes?

a. Multiply the two dominant allele frequencies and subtract that value from one

b. Multiply each recessive allele frequency by itself and then multiply those two values

c. Sum each recessive allele frequency and then multiply that value by itself

d. Multiply each recessive allele frequency by itself and add those two values

e. Sum each recessive allele frequency

b. Multiply each recessive allele frequency by itself and then multiply those two values

94. The native peoples of the Americas arrived: (when and directly from where)

a. 100,000 years ago from Asia

b. 20-30,000 years ago from Asia

c. 100,000 years ago from Africa

d. 20-30,000 years ago from Australia

e. 20-30,000 years ago from Europe

b. 20-30,000 years ago from Asia

95. Fungi are most closely related to which other kingdom?

a. Plants, and their earliest ancestors were both flagellated

b. Plants, and their earliest ancestors were both photosynthetic

c. Animals, and their earliest ancestors existed in a two-nucleus (dikaryotic) state

d. Animals, and their earliest ancestors were both flagellated

e. Animals, and their earliest ancestors existed in a two-nucleus (dikaryotic) state

d. Animals, and their earliest ancestors were both flagellated

96. How many genotypes are possible when two genes are considered together (combined)?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Six

d. Nine

e. Twelve

d. Nine

97. What sequencing method was used in the early tree of life study in the 1970s?

a. RNA sequencing using messenger RNA

b. RNA sequencing using ribosomal RNA

c. RNA sequencing using transfer RNA

d. DNA sequencing of the ribosomal RNA gene

e. DNA sequencing of the genome

b. RNA sequencing using ribosomal RNA

98. If given the allele frequencies of two genes, what would be the frequency of the phenotype dominant for at least one gene?

a. Sum the two dominant allele frequencies and multiply that value by itself

b. After summing the two dominant allele frequencies, subtract that value from one

c. Take the product of the recessive and dominant allele frequencies and subtract that value from one

d. After multiplying each recessive allele frequency by itself, subtract the product of those two values from one

e. Take the sum of the recessive and dominant allele frequencies and subtract that value from one

d. After multiplying each recessive allele frequency by itself, subtract the product of those two values from one

99. When was Darwin's prediction of having fairly true genealogical trees realized, or has it been?

a. In the late 1800s

b. In the early 1900s

c. By the middle of the 20th century

d. During the last 20 years

e. Estimated to happen in about 50 years

d. During the last 20 years

100. Which of the following mutations would generally have the most deleterious effect on protein function?

a. A single nucleotide transversion at the third position in a codon

b. A single nucleotide deletion

c. A 3-nucleotide deletion

d. A single nucleotide transition at the second position in a codon

e. A 3-nucleotide inversion

b. A single nucleotide deletion