(Rahel) Review Flashcards: Treatment Planning and Clinical Disorders

Flashcards based on lecture notes covering counseling treatment planning, evidence-based practices, and various psychological disorders including anxiety, mood, trauma, and personality disorders.

What is a critical responsibility for counselors when using software to generate treatment plans?

Ensure the treatment plan is specific to client needs.

In the stages of change model, what occurs during the contemplation phase?

The client is becoming more aware that a problem exists, but has made no plans to change.

What does the acronym SMART stand for regarding client goals?

Specific, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and timely.

Why should a counselor assess a client’s level of functioning before creating a treatment plan?

To set realistic goals for the client.

Who typically develops a treatment plan?

The client, counselor, and treatment team (if applicable).

In the I CAN START model, what does contextual assessment refer to?

Factors such as demographics, family dynamics/support, and current struggles.

If Camille reveals a trauma mid-treatment for different issues, what is the recommended course of action?

Process the traumatic event for as long as Camille feels necessary, then continue with the original treatment plan.

According to the DSM-5, which tool can assess a client’s level of functioning?

WHODAS scores.

What is NOT a guideline for evaluating evidence-based treatments?

Approaches and interventions supported by the documentation of only one scientific inquiry.

What are the characteristics of a high-quality treatment plan?

Collaborative, specific to client needs, and based on a timetable.

What is the primary focus of treatment planning in the I CAN START model?

Integrating the client’s strengths.

What is an example of an appropriate, measurable treatment goal for depression?

"The client will learn and use positive self-talk to engage with family members in the home $50\%$ of the time."

What is a benefit of using formal assessment in treatment planning?

It helps counselors to better understand the client.

What is a common mistake novice counselors make when creating goals?

Creating too many treatment goals or goals that are too complex.

What describes the nature of treatment plan documents?

They are fluid documents that must continuously be adjusted.

Which variable has generally NOT been shown to affect treatment outcomes?

Counselor training.

What is a vital client variable that determines successful counseling outcomes?

Client’s motivation to change.

The primary reason for clients to choose their own treatment goals is for which purpose?

So they will be motivated to change.

What is the I CAN START model?

A model used by counselors to guide case conceptualization and treatment planning.

What is the purpose of therapeutic support services?

Provide clients with additional support beyond psychosocial therapy through education, training, socialization, and navigation of difficult processes.

What does case conceptualization refer to?

Developing a clinical picture of a client’s situation.

What is true regarding the occurrence of informed consent?

Informed consent is an ongoing process.

What refers to the practice of using a less severe diagnosis to avoid stigma?

Downcode.

Who is typically the treatment leader in a clinical treatment team?

A physician/psychiatrist.

In a medical model of change, where is the responsibility for the problem placed?

At the individual level.

What is the function of accrediting bodies in counseling?

Enhance the quality of services provided to consumers of services.

What is the Cultural Formation Interview in the DSM-5 used for?

To obtain clinically useful information, develop relational connections, and make accurate diagnoses.

What counseling factor influences the treatment plan and goals?

Counseling session limits.

How can consultation and supervision assist a counselor?

By ensuring diagnostic and treatment planning procedures match standards of care and preventing harm.

A culturally sensitive assessment is NOT achieved in which scenario?

If a counselor assessed the client’s presenting issue solely from her/his clinical lens.

Which disorder is a third-party payer most likely to cover for reimbursement?

Major depressive disorder.

What is NOT identified as a concern of the DSM?

The claim that the DSM can predict treatment outcomes.

Ethical standards require counselors to provide which type of diagnoses?

Accurate; misrepresenting.

Which skill is necessary for diversity-sensitive diagnosis?

Conduct gender-sensitive clinical assessments.

What is false regarding multiple relationships under current ethical standards?

The claim that ONLY sexual/romantic interactions with the current client are prohibited.

In what year was the most recent version of the ACA Code of Ethics published?

$2014$.

What do third-party payers typically use to determine the number of approved sessions?

The diagnosis.

What is the primary purpose of informed consent?

To ensure that the client fully understands the counseling process.

What outcome has resulted from the increase in managed care systems?

Decreased client confidentiality.

What do professionals consider for cultural validity in assessment?

Socioeconomic status, functional abilities, and race/ethnicity.

How many sessions do third-party payers generally reimburse compared to clinical recommendations?

Fewer.

Which of the following is NOT a potential indicator for suicide?

Frequent crying spells.

What demeanor is essential when treating homicidal clients?

Nonjudgmental and calm.

What are risk factors for interpersonal violence victims?

Being young, unemployed, of low socioeconomic status, and having low self-esteem.

If a counselor identifies a homicidal client's intended victim, what is the priority action?

Notify the intended victim.

What is true about effective interventions for homicidal clients?

They are unique for each client.

What is a counselor consideration for interpersonal violence victims?

Maintaining a sense of collaboration in treatment.

How should a counselor assess for homicidal risk?

Ask specific, direct questions about the client's plan and means of accomplishing it.

What is a "false negative" in suicide risk assessment?

Failing to have hospitalized clients who go on to commit suicide.

What is the most common psychiatric disorder among interpersonal violence victims?

Posttraumatic stress disorder.

What are core competencies for counseling suicidal clients?

Risk assessment, crisis planning, understanding legal/ethical issues, and accurate documentation.

What refers to an important treatment aspect for interpersonal violence victims?

Psychoeducation.

How can counselors promote self-esteem in suicidal clients?

Emphasize client strengths.

What should counselors working with suicidal clients do for theirs own safety/quality?

Engage in peer consultation and obtain supervision.

What is a priority regarding rapport with a suicidal client?

Establishing rapport and providing a safe and comfortable environment.

What should be a counselor's number one priority?

Client safety.

Suicide ideation should be assessed in individuals with which disorders?

All disorders.

What document helps interpersonal violence victims manage violent situations?

Safety plan.

What factors are associated with homicidal ideation?

Past criminal charges, lack of empathy and remorse, psychiatric disorders, and substance abuse.

What is considered an especially strong predictor of future suicide attempts?

Past suicide attempts.

What does a contract for safety for suicidal clients specify?

The client will not commit suicide for a specific period of time.

What is a warning sign of the hypomanic phase?

A remarkable, directly noticeable sudden change in functioning uncharacteristic of the individual.

What symptoms are experienced during a manic episode?

Euphoria, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity.

What is the most commonly occurring subtype within Bipolar Disorders?

Bipolar I.

What does the STEP form of treatment stand for?

Systematic Treatment Enhancement Program.

A CBT goal for treating major depressive disorder typically includes:

Teaching clients to recognize and manage their reactions to depressive symptoms.

What percentage of the general population is impacted by depressive and bipolar disorders?

$2\text{--}10\%$.

What is the language used in the DSM-5 to classify these mood disorders?

Episodes.

What are three important considerations in treating depressive and bipolar disorders?

Symptom management, relapse prevention, and adaptive functioning.

Which adjunct therapies are considered in the treatment of major depressive disorder?

Mindfulness based interventions and electroconvulsive therapy.

Do individuals with Bipolar II experience psychotic symptoms?

Never.

Elevated risk of suicide is a significant consideration for which set of disorders?

Major depressive disorder, bipolar I, and bipolar II disorders.

Why should counselors of Bipolar I clients seek personal support?

Those with Bipolar I have a high rate of suicide.

In what population has pharmaceutical research for Bipolar II been limited due to risk?

Pregnant women.

Which therapeutic approach is effective for premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

Cognitive behavioral therapy.

What constellation of symptoms characterizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder in children?

Mood swings, irritability, and tantrums.

Josh feels "down in the dumps," assumes the worst, and has insomnia. What is the likely diagnosis?

Persistent depressive disorder.

What risks should be considered for persistent depressive disorder?

Emotional and physical abuse and marital dissatisfaction.

What diagnosis follows a current manic episode and a history of one major depressive episode?

Bipolar I.

What are the three modules of Family Focused Therapy (FFT)?

Psychoeducation, communication, and problem-solving.

When is Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) used for Bipolar I?

With individuals who are suicidal and have limited success with psychopharmacology.

What is the most evidence-based treatment for agoraphobia?

Situational in vivo exposure.

What is the hallmark of social anxiety disorder?

A fear of negative evaluation in social situations.

What is a potential contributor to separation anxiety disorder?

Parental over-control.

Which factors are necessary for the diagnosis of an anxiety disorder?

Physiological and psychological states.

Which anxiety disorder has the lowest comorbidity rate?

Specific phobia.

What describes situational in-vivo exposure?

A process by which a client gradually exposes herself to a feared situation and remains until anxiety diminishes.

Among which group are specific phobias most common?

Women.

What differentiates panic disorder (PD) from occasional panic attacks?

Catastrophic thoughts during a panic attack and anticipatory anxiety of future panic attacks.

What does agoraphobia refer to the fear of?

Situations in which escape may be difficult or impossible.

To best assist an anxiety disorder client, what should the counselor prioritize?

Focus on relieving symptoms first, then tackle the causes of the problem.

Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) does what for an anxiety client?

Encourages clients to accept rather than attempt to control passing thoughts.

Why is panic disorder often not diagnosed immediately?

Clients mistake it for physical ailments.

What treatment provides the best prognosis for specific phobias?

Exposure therapy.

Which is a commonly used treatment for selective mutism?

Music therapy.

What are most commonly prescribed to treat generalized anxiety disorder?

Benzodiazepines and SSRI's.

What does the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model (IUM) state for GAD?

They believe that worry protects them from negative events or prepares them to cope.

What is the prognosis pattern for anxiety disorders?

High recovery rate and high relapse rate.

Selective mutism generally occurs before what age?

$5$.

What must a counselor ensure when treating OCD?

That symptoms are not better accounted for by a different diagnosis.