nursing 1 test 1

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Last updated 9:32 PM on 9/11/26
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491 Terms

1
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What are the 5 phases of the nursing process?

Assessment → Diagnosis → Planning → Implementation → Evaluation (ADPIE).

2
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What is clinical decision making?

A critical-thinking process for choosing the best actions to meet a desired goal.

3
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What 3 things go into clinical decision making?

Nurse's clinical skills/expertise + client preferences + evidence.

4
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What is clinical judgment?

The thought process (clinical reasoning) that allows a healthcare provider to reach a conclusion based on objective and subjective patient information.

5
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What are salient cues?

Significant data that indicate a positive or negative change in a client's health status or differ from expected norms.

6
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What is assessment?

Systematic, continuous collection of data focused on the client's response to a health problem.

7
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Does assessment happen only at the beginning of the nursing process?

No. Data collection continues throughout all phases of the nursing process.

8
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What is subjective data?

Information reported by the client or family—what the patient says/experiences.

9
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What is objective data?

Data obtained through physical examination/observation—what you can see, hear, measure, or observe.

10
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What is the primary source of data?

The client/patient.

11
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What is a secondary source of data?

Any source other than the client, such as family or other information sources.

12
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What can nurses use to organize assessment data?

Nursing models such as Gordon's 11 functional health patterns, Roy's adaptation model, and Maslow's hierarchy of needs, or body systems.

13
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What happens during the diagnosis phase?

The nurse clusters assessment data, identifies problems, and gives the problem a name.

14
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What is a nursing diagnosis?

A statement of nursing judgment about a patient's human response to a health condition.

15
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What is a medical diagnosis?

A disease-focused diagnosis made by a physician, APRN, or PA.

16
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What type of diagnosis is 'Pneumonia'?

Medical diagnosis.

17
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What type of diagnosis is 'Acute pain related to tissue injury'?

Nursing diagnosis.

18
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What does a nursing diagnosis focus on?

The patient's response to the health condition—not the disease itself.

19
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What are the 4 types of nursing diagnoses?

Actual, Risk, Health promotion, Syndrome.

20
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What is an actual nursing diagnosis?

A problem-focused diagnosis where the problem is currently present.

21
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What is a risk nursing diagnosis?

The problem doesn't currently exist, but the patient has risk factors for developing it.

22
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What is a health promotion diagnosis?

A diagnosis indicating readiness to improve.

23
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What is a syndrome diagnosis?

A cluster of nursing diagnoses that can occur together.

24
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What are the components of a nursing diagnosis?

Diagnostic label, Etiology, Defining characteristics.

25
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What is the diagnostic label?

The problem, approved by NANDA.

26
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What is the etiology?

The related factors/risk factors—probable causes of the health problem.

27
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What are defining characteristics?

A cluster of signs and symptoms indicating the presence of a particular diagnosis.

28
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What happens during planning?

The nurse develops client goals and determines appropriate nursing interventions.

29
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Who must be involved in planning?

The client. Goals must be client-centered.

30
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What is the purpose of goals?

They provide criteria for evaluating the patient's progress.

31
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What does SMART stand for?

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-limited.

32
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Which is a better goal: 'Patient will have less pain.' or 'Patient will report pain of 2/10 or lower by the end of shift.'?

The second. It's measurable and time-limited.

33
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What is implementation?

The action phase of the nursing process.

34
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What happens during implementation?

Identify the best priority intervention and implement the intervention.

35
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What are nursing interventions?

Actions the nurse performs to achieve goals.

36
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What is an independent nursing intervention?

An intervention the nurse is licensed to initiate independently.

37
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What is a collaborative intervention?

An intervention performed with other members of the healthcare team.

38
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What is a dependent intervention?

An intervention carried out under a physician's order/supervision.

39
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What should nursing interventions be based on?

Current best nursing research evidence, client values/beliefs/culture, and standards of care/other therapies.

40
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What is evaluation?

The last phase of the nursing process where the nurse determines the client's progress toward achieving goals and the effectiveness of the care plan.

41
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What are the 3 possible evaluation conclusions?

Goal met, goal partially met, goal not met.

42
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What should an evaluation statement contain?

Date/time, whether goal was met, partially met, or not met, and a supporting statement describing the patient's results.

43
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What happens if a goal is not met?

Reassess and potentially adapt/reprioritize the nursing diagnosis, revise goals, and redesign interventions.

44
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What does 'priority' mean?

Giving attention to something before competing alternatives.

45
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Why do nurses prioritize care?

To manage time and establish the order of care, especially when caring for multiple patients.

46
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What are the main tools for prioritization?

ABCs + Maslow's hierarchy + client preferences + law.

47
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What does ABC stand for?

Airway → Breathing → Circulation.

48
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Which is usually the priority: a breathing problem or a psychosocial problem?

Breathing problem.

49
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What type of cues indicate a potentially serious change in health status?

Salient/significant cues.

50
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According to Maslow, what is the FIRST priority?

Physiological needs.

51
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After physiological needs, what should you look for?

Safety needs, followed by psychosocial needs if physiological and safety aren't options.

52
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What is a high-priority situation?

A life-threatening situation that must be addressed first.

53
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What is a medium-priority situation?

A problem that can cause unhealthy physical or emotional consequences but isn't life-threatening.

54
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What is a low-priority situation?

Something that can be delayed/resolved easily without causing dysfunction and may be delegated.

55
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What is the urgency factor?

How much time can pass before negative consequences occur.

56
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If two patients both need care, what makes one a higher priority?

The patient whose condition has greater urgency/acuity and whose delay could result in more serious consequences.

57
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What is the nurse's responsibility when delegating?

The task must be within the delegatee's scope of practice, and the RN evaluates whether it was completed.

58
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Who may nurses delegate appropriate tasks to?

LPNs and UAPs, as appropriate to their scope.

59
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What is a major safety principle during nursing care?

Do no harm. Don't rush—medications in particular require attention and safe administration.

60
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What is 'prioritizing without assessment'?

Making decisions based on assumptions, incomplete assessment, relying solely on someone else's assessment, or failing to reassess.

61
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Why is 'always doing the easiest task first' a problem?

The easiest task isn't necessarily the most important or urgent task.

62
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What is a common mistake involving the client?

Failing to include the client in care, including ignoring preferences and individuality.

63
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What is oxygenation?

The process of providing oxygen to all cells of the body.

64
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What are the two major processes involved in how the respiratory system works?

Ventilation and respiration.

65
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What is ventilation?

The combination of inspiration and expiration.

66
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What happens during inspiration?

Air is brought into the lungs.

67
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What happens during expiration?

Carbon dioxide is expelled from the body.

68
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What happens to the diaphragm during inhalation?

It contracts.

69
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What happens to the diaphragm during exhalation?

It relaxes.

70
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What is respiration?

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level.

71
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What structures make up the upper respiratory tract?

Nose, mouth, pharynx, and trachea.

72
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What structures make up the lower respiratory tract?

Lungs, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.

73
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How many lobes does the left lung have?

2 lobes.

74
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How many lobes does the right lung have?

3 lobes.

75
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What is the pleural space?

The space between the two pleural layers containing a small amount of fluid that allows smooth lung movement.

76
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What are alveoli?

Air sacs at the ends of bronchioles and the site of gas exchange.

77
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What gas diffuses from the alveoli into the blood?

Oxygen (O₂).

78
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What gas diffuses from the blood into the alveoli to be exhaled?

Carbon dioxide (CO₂).

79
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What does surfactant do?

Maintains surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse.

80
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Is breathing controlled automatically?

Yes. The autonomic system controls automatic breathing.

81
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What two blood-gas changes stimulate respiratory receptors?

↑ CO₂ or ↓ O₂.

82
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What do changes in O₂ and CO₂ affect?

The rate and depth of ventilation.

83
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What are the four techniques used in a physical respiratory assessment?

Inspect → Palpate → Percuss → Auscultate.

84
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What is auscultation?

Listening to body sounds with a stethoscope.

85
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What are early cues of inadequate oxygenation?

Shortness of breath, difficulty speaking, restlessness, irritability, confusion, bluish discoloration, and self-positioning/leaning forward.

86
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Why is increasing restlessness or confusion important?

It can indicate inadequate oxygenation.

87
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What position might a patient with breathing difficulty naturally assume?

Leaning forward or against a table.

88
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Where are bronchial breath sounds normally heard?

Over the trachea.

89
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What do bronchial sounds sound like?

Loud and high-pitched.

90
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Where are bronchovesicular sounds heard?

On the sides of the sternum and between the scapulae.

91
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Where are vesicular sounds heard?

Over the peripheral lung fields, especially the bases.

92
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What do vesicular sounds sound like?

Soft and low-pitched.

93
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What is stridor?

A high-pitched sound associated with narrowing/blockage of the trachea or larynx, usually heard on inspiration.

94
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What are crackles?

High-pitched popping sounds, usually on inspiration, associated with fluid in the lung fields or localized atelectasis.

95
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Do crackles usually clear with coughing?

No.

96
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What are rhonchi?

Coarse, low-pitched sounds caused by mucus/secretions in the bronchi.

97
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Can rhonchi clear with coughing?

Yes, possibly.

98
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What is wheezing?

A high-pitched whistling sound caused by narrowed bronchi, commonly from swelling/inflammation.

99
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What is a pleural friction rub?

A low-pitched grating/creaking sound caused by inflamed pleural surfaces rubbing together.

100
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What is hypoxemia?

Decreased oxygen in the blood.