Airborne Bacterial Diseases - Microbiology Review

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Flashcards covering key concepts from the lecture notes on airborne bacterial diseases.

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113 Terms

1
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What does the upper respiratory tract (URT) consist of?

The URT consists of the nose, sinus cavities, pharynx, and larynx.

2
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What is the primary function of mucociliary clearance in the respiratory system?

Mucociliary clearance traps microbes and particulates larger than 2 µm in mucus, which are then swallowed or expectorated.

3
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What are mucins?

Charged glycoproteins found in mucus that help trap microbes.

4
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What types of substances are found in mucus that help with antimicrobial defense?

Antimicrobial substances include interferon, lysozyme, lactoferrin, IgA, IgG, defensins, and cytokines.

5
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What is a resident microbiome?

The collective microbes and their genomes that inhabit various sites in and on the human body.

6
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What role does microbial antagonism play in defense against pathogens?

Resident microbes outcompete invading pathogens for space and nutrients.

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What can happen when dysbiosis occurs in the respiratory tract?

A resident bacterial species can act as an opportunist and outgrow, leading to infection.

8
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What is pharyngitis?

An inflammation of the pharynx, often referred to as a sore throat.

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Which bacterium is primarily responsible for streptococcal pharyngitis?

Streptococcus pyogenes.

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What are the main symptoms of streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)?

Sore throat, fever, headache, swollen lymph nodes, tonsils, and a beefy red appearance of pharyngeal tissues.

11
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What can untreated streptococcal pharyngitis lead to?

Complications such as rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

12
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What is the causative agent of diphtheria?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

13
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What are the initial symptoms of diphtheria?

Sore throat and low-grade fever.

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What serious complication can occur if diphtheria spreads to the bloodstream?

Heart damage and destruction of the fatty sheath around nerves.

15
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What is the treatment for diphtheria?

Antibiotics such as penicillin or erythromycin and antitoxins.

16
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What is bacterial sinusitis?

An inflammation of the sinuses, often following a viral infection.

17
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Which bacteria are commonly involved in acute rhinosinusitis?

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Haemophilus, and Moraxella.

18
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What symptoms may indicate bacterial sinusitis?

Pain, tenderness, swelling, yellow or green pus discharge, fever, and chills.

19
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What is the clinical significance of ear infections in children?

Ear infections are common illnesses in early childhood.

20
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What is acute otitis media (AOM)?

A short-term infection of the middle ear, usually caused by S. pneumoniae or H. influenzae.

21
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What is chronic otitis media (COM)?

Long-term infection and inflammation of the middle ear, leading to hearing impairment.

22
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What is the causative agent of bacterial meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis, among others.

23
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What are common symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis?

Fever, stiff neck, headache, nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light.

24
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What role does the lumbar puncture play in diagnosing meningitis?

It tests cerebrospinal fluid for infection.

25
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What is pneumococcal meningitis?

A form of bacterial meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

26
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What are the main characteristics of Legionnaires' disease?

A severe pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila, often acquired from contaminated water sources.

27
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Which bacterial species is a common cause of atypical pneumonia in young people?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

28
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What does the term 'walking pneumonia' refer to?

A mild form of pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, where individuals do not feel severely ill.

29
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What is Q fever?

An infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, prevalent among livestock and transmitted to humans primarily by inhalation.

30
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What are common treatments for bacterial pneumonia?

Antibiotics, specifically tailored to the causative agent.

31
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What can complicate the treatment of pneumonia in healthcare settings?

Increased antibiotic resistance.

32
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What immune response can occur due to inhalational anthrax?

Initial cold-like symptoms followed by severe respiratory issues.

33
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What is the significance of the BCG vaccine?

It provides immunization against tuberculosis by using an attenuated strain of M. bovis.

34
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What is the leading cause of death in AIDS patients related to bacterial diseases?

Tuberculosis (TB).

35
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What is the unique feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

It has a waxy cell wall that makes it resistant to harsh conditions.

36
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How is TB typically diagnosed?

Through tuberculin tests and chest X-rays.

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What kind of environment contributes to the spread of tuberculosis?

Crowded conditions and poor ventilation.

38
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What is recommended treatment duration for TB?

Six to nine months or more.

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What is the treatment for multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)?

Second-line drugs, such as fluoroquinolones and kanamycin.

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What is the importance of direct observation treatment (DOT) in managing TB?

It ensures that patients take their medication properly.

41
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What happens during the primary TB infection stage?

Bacilli enter the alveoli, and macrophages try to wall off the infection.

42
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What complication may arise from untreated streptococcal pharyngitis?

Rheumatic fever, affecting the heart and joints.

43
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How are bacterial pathogens transmitted in the respiratory system?

Through aerosols and respiratory droplets.

44
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What are some common bacterial pathogens associated with pneumonia in children?

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.

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What contributes to the risk of developing lung infections?

Age, chronic conditions, and weakened immune systems.

46
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What is the significance of the Eustachian tube in middle ear infections?

It connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing infections to spread.

47
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What can lead to chronic bronchitis?

Persistent cough and mucus production lasting more than 3 months.

48
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What are the primary causes of healthcare-acquired pneumonia (HAP)?

Bacterial infections, often associated with invasive medical devices.

49
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What is a defining feature of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?

It occurs in individuals with no recent hospitalization.

50
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Which organisms commonly cause streptococcal infections?

Streptococcus pyogenes, among others.

51
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What can lead to a secondary bacterial infection after a viral respiratory infection?

Increased mucus production and inflammation in the respiratory tract.

52
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What preventative measures are effective against respiratory bacterial infections?

Good hygiene and vaccination.

53
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What is the incubation period for diphtheria?

2 to 4 days.

54
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What differentiates atypical pneumonia from typical pneumonia?

Atypical pneumonia has milder symptoms and requires different antibiotics.

55
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What type of bacteria are Chlamydophila species?

Obligate intracellular parasites.

56
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What symptoms indicate the presence of meningococcal meningitis?

Fever, stiff neck, headache, and vomiting.

57
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How can bacteria cause ear infections in children?

By traveling from the nasopharynx through the Eustachian tube.

58
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What is a common diagnostic method for identifying tuberculosis infection?

The Mantoux test.

59
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What are the common causes of infectious bronchitis?

Bacterial infections that follow viral respiratory infections.

60
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What is DTaP vaccine?

A combination vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis.

61
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What are the potential complications from untreated sinusitis?

Spread of infection to the eyes or brain.

62
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Which bacterial species can contribute to chronic infections in the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients?

Mycobacterium abscessus.

63
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What is the role of the immune system in the respiratory tract?

To capture and destroy pathogens before they can cause disease.

64
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How can scarlet fever develop from streptococcal pharyngitis?

Certain strains of S. pyogenes release erythrogenic toxins.

65
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What can chronic infections in the middle ear lead to?

Hearing impairment and balance issues.

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What is the treatment protocol for otitis media?

Observation or antibiotics, depending on severity.

67
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What are common signs and symptoms of pneumonia?

Cough, fever, chest pain, and difficulty breathing.

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What happens during the paroxysmal stage of pertussis?

Severe, labored breathing with cough fits, leading to exhaustion.

69
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What is the significance of the age factor in pneumococcal infections?

Infants and older adults are at increased risk for severe disease.

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What health risks are associated with contact with livestock?

Potential infections such as Q fever and anthrax.

71
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What is the significance of a pseudomembrane in diphtheria?

It can cause respiratory blockage.

72
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What role do macrophages play in the body's response to tuberculosis?

They attempt to engulf and destroy the bacilli.

73
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Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat bacterial meningitis?

Large intravenous doses of penicillin.

74
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How can bacterial pathogens be transmitted in healthcare settings?

Through contaminated hands and surfaces.

75
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What characterizes classic symptoms of whooping cough?

Intense coughing spells followed by a whooping sound.

76
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Which bacteria are commonly responsible for community-acquired pneumonia?

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

77
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What environmental factors contribute to the spread of tuberculosis?

Crowded living conditions and poor ventilation.

78
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What is the common treatment regimen for multi-drug resistant tuberculosis?

Extended antibiotic therapy with second-line drugs.

79
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What is the importance of vaccination against streptococcal infections?

It helps prevent severe complications such as rheumatic fever.

80
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What are the unique features of Biofilms in chronic infections?

They provide a defensive barrier for bacteria against antibiotics.

81
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What preventive measure is recommended for viral infections that can lead to secondary bacterial infections?

Annual influenza vaccination.

82
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What is recommended for patients with acute bronchitis of bacterial origin?

Antibiotics may be prescribed depending on the severity.

83
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How is childhood pneumonia commonly diagnosed?

Through clinical examination and chest X-rays.

84
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What is the main mode of transmission for pertussis?

Airborne droplets from coughs or sneezes.

85
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What does a positive Mantoux test indicate?

It indicates exposure to the tuberculosis bacterium, but not necessarily active disease.

86
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What is the significance of infections in the Eustachian tube?

They can lead to middle ear infections and complications.

87
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What are the benefits of antibiotic therapy in treating pneumonia?

Reduction of symptoms and prevention of complications.

88
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What is a key feature of brachial pneumonia?

It presents as scattered patches of infection throughout the lung.

89
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What is the consequence of intense airborne pathogen exposure?

High chances of infection in susceptible individuals.

90
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What can Bacillus anthracis cause when transmitted to humans?

Inhalational anthrax, potentially leading to severe pneumonia.

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What are common features of typical pneumonia?

Fever, cough, and chest pain.

92
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What prevention strategies exist for healthcare-associated infections?

Good hygiene practices and vaccination.

93
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What are the roles of direct observation treatment (DOT) and patient compliance in TB management?

They ensure patients adhere to lengthy treatment regimens to reduce resistance.

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What effect does crowding have on respiratory disease spread?

It increases the likelihood of person-to-person transmission.

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What is a classic symptom of bacterial meningitis that requires immediate attention?

Stiff neck.

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What is the recommended treatment for Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia in children?

Broad-spectrum antibiotics, often cephalosporins.

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What are the characteristics of the cough associated with whooping cough?

A severely persistent cough often followed by a whooping sound.

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What features differentiate viral and bacterial pneumonia?

Bacterial pneumonia usually presents with more severe symptoms and requires antibiotics.

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What is the primary treatment for diphtheria?

Antibiotics along with antitoxins.

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What should be done if a patient shows signs of TB?

Immediate isolation and further testing.