Skin, Hair and Nails

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124 Terms

1
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What is subjective assessment?

What the patient tells you

2
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What are the main areas of focus in a subjective assessment? (7)

  • Issues

  • Changes

  • Past medical history

  • Family history

  • Medications

  • Allergies

  • Lifestyle

3
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What acronym helps us remember all the areas to cover when discussing the issues of a patient?

OLDCARTS

4
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What does OLDCARTS stand for in a subjective assessment?

  • Onset

  • Location

  • Duration

  • Characteristics

  • Aggravating/Alleviating Factors

  • Related Symptoms

  • Treatments by patient

  • Severity

5
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In OLDCARTS, what does onset mean?

What came on (when it started)

6
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In OLDCARTS, what does location mean?

Where the issue is located

7
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In OLDCARTS, what does duration mean?

How long the issue has been present

8
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In OLDCARTS, what does Characteristics mean?

Qualities of the issue

9
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In OLDCARTS, what does Aggravating/Alleviating mean?

What makes it better or worse and when is it better or worse

10
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In OLDCARTS, what does related symptoms mean?

What else is happening with this issue

11
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In OLDCARTS, what does treatment by patient mean?

What the patient has tried at home (ointments/medications/etc)

12
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In OLDCARTS, what does severity mean?

Pain level and if it has been better or worse

13
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What is an objective assessment?

What the nurse examines

14
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What should always be done first in an objective assessment?

General survey before systematic approach

15
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What order is used to inspect the skin?

Head to toe approach

16
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Which areas should be especially focused on during a skin exam?

Areas prone to skin breakdown, eyes, lips, and inside the mouth

17
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What does the ABCDE format stand for when inspecting lesions to see if they are malignant?

  • Asymmetry

  • Border irregularity

  • Color variety

  • Diameter greater than 6 cm

  • Evolution over time

18
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What do you check for when palpating the skin? (3)

  • Temperature

  • Turgor

  • Edema

19
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What is a normal skin turgor result?

Less than 4 seconds

20
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Where is turgor assessed in adults vs older adults?

Adults should be on top of the hand, older adults should be on the medial thigh

21
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What do you note for when assessing hair?

  • Texture

  • Hygiene

  • Lesions

  • Nits

22
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Which hidden areas should not be forgotten during a hair inspection?

Behind the ears and at the base of the scalp

23
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Why are hair styles relevant in a hair assessment?

They can hide or contribute to scalp/skin issues

24
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What is the order of assessment for nails?

  • Inspect

  • Palpate fingernails

  • Palpate toenails

25
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What is a normal capillary refill time?

Less than 2 seconds

26
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What is the normal nail angle?

Less than 160 degrees

27
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What does a nail angle of greater than 160 indicate?

Clubbing which happens due to poor perfusion (usually due to chronic respiratory conditions like COPD)

28
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What are the 5 main types of data collection tests?

  • Complete Blood Count (CBC)

  • Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)

  • Cultures

  • Allergy Testing

  • Biopsy

29
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What does a CBC tell you about?

  • RBC count

  • Hemoglobin

  • Hematocrit

  • RBC morphology

  • Platelet count

  • Platelet size

  • WBC count

30
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What does hemoglobin measure?

How well oxygen is being carried by proteins through the blood

31
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Is hemoglobin higher in men or women?

Men

32
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What does hematocrit measure?

The percentage of RBCs in the blood (Volume of RBCs/Volume of blood)

33
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Is hematocrit higher in men or women?

Men

34
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What does RBC morphology tell you?

The shape of RBCs

35
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What does WBC count tell you?

Infection status (higher WBCs means more infection)

36
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What is a CBC with differential?

A CBC that breaks down the different types of WBCs specifically (helps know what stage of infection the patient is in)

37
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What does a BMP tell you about?

  • Sodium levels

  • Chloride levels

  • Potassium levels

  • BUN

  • Creatinine levels

  • GFR

  • Calcium levels

  • Glucose levels

38
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What do BUN, creatinine and GFR tell you?

How good the patients kidney function is

39
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What does glucose level indicate?

Blood sugar status

40
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What is a wound culture?

A swab of a wound sent to the lab to grow and identify organisms

41
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What is allergy skin testing used for?

To detect allergies by observing skin reaction to certain substances

42
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What is a biopsy?

A sample of tissue sent to the lab to understand more about a lesion or condition

43
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What are examples of biopsy types?

  • Bone marrow biopsy

  • Excisional biopsy

44
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What are the three phases of wound healing?

  • Inflammatory

  • Proliferative

  • Remodeling

45
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When does the inflammatory phase begin and how long does it last?

Within 30 minutes of injury and lasts 2-3 days

46
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What occurs in the inflammatory phase?

  • Vasoconstriction

  • Platelet aggregation

  • Inflammatory reactions

  • Swelling

  • Erythema

47
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When does the proliferative phase begin and how long does it last?

Begins at the end of the inflammatory phase and may last up to 4 weeks

48
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What occurs in the proliferative phase?

Fibroblasts deposit collagen and growth factors and the wound beds show granulation (formation of new, soft, red tissue)

49
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When does the remodeling phase begin and how long can it last?

Begins right after proliferative phase and may last as long as 2 years

50
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What occurs in the remodeling phase?

Rapid collagen replaced by mature collagen, increasing tensile strength of the wound

51
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What are 9 common types of primary skin findings?

  • Macule

  • Papule

  • Patch

  • Vesicle

  • Bulla

  • Plaque

  • Wheal

  • Cyst

  • Pustule

52
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What is a macule?

A flat, circumscribed, discoloration on the skin the is LESS than 1 cm

<p>A flat, circumscribed, discoloration on the skin the is LESS than 1 cm </p>
53
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What is a patch?

Flat, circumscribed, discoloration that is GREATER than 1 cm

<p>Flat, circumscribed, discoloration that is GREATER than 1 cm </p>
54
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What is a papule?

A raised, defined, solid bump under the skin

<p>A raised, defined, solid bump under the skin </p>
55
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What is a vesicle?

A small, fluid filled sac or blister that is LESS than 1 cm

<p>A small, fluid filled sac or blister that is LESS than 1 cm</p>
56
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What is a bulla?

A fluid filled sac that is GREATER than 1 cm

<p>A fluid filled sac that is GREATER than 1 cm</p>
57
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What is a plaque?

A raised, flat topped lesion that is greater than 1 cm

<p>A raised, flat topped lesion that is greater than 1 cm</p>
58
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What is a wheal?

A raised, irregular, transient lesion due to edema

<p>A raised, irregular, transient lesion due to edema</p>
59
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What is a cyst?

A sac filled with fluid or semi solid material

<p>A sac filled with fluid or semi solid material </p>
60
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What is cystic acne?

Inflamed, deep, pus filled cysts on the skin caused by blacked pored and infection

61
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What is a pustule?

Small, raised, pus filled lesion

<p>Small, raised, pus filled lesion </p>
62
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What is a keloid?

Overgrowth of fibrous tissue forming an enlarged scar

<p>Overgrowth of fibrous tissue forming an enlarged scar</p>
63
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What is a scar?

Fibrous tissue replacing normal skin after injury or surgery

<p>Fibrous tissue replacing normal skin after injury or surgery </p>
64
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What is atrophy of the skin?

Thinning or loss of skin, sometimes from aging or sun exposure

65
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What is excoriation?

A lesion from scratching or excessive rubbing of the skin

<p>A lesion from scratching or excessive rubbing of the skin</p>
66
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What are the 7 main patterns of lesion distribution?

  • Asymmetrical

  • Symmetrical

  • Bilateral

  • Diffuse

  • Generalized

  • Localized

  • Grouped

67
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What does asymmetrical lesion distribution mean?

Lesions appear only on one side

68
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What does symmetrical lesion distribution mean?

Lesions appear only both sides

69
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What does bilateral lesion distribution mean?

Lesions are EQUALLY distributed on both sides

70
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What does diffuse lesion distribution mean?

Lesions Are widely spread across an area without a clear pattern

71
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What does generalized lesion distribution mean?

Lesions cover one specific large body area

72
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What does localized lesion distribution mean?

Lesions are confined to one distinct area

73
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What does grouped lesion distribution mean?

Multiple lesions or wounds clustered in a pattern

74
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Why are cultural considerations important in skin assessment?

Some findings may appear abnormal but are benign and require no medical intervention

75
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What are common cultural/benign skin findings?

  • Cafe au lait spots

  • Congenital dermal melanocytosis

  • Stork bite

  • Traction alopecia

  • Pseudofolliculitis barbae

  • Cupping

  • Coining

  • Skin tone variations

76
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What are cafe au lait spots?

Hyperpigmented lesions that range from light to dark brown, do not go away, but may fade or change shape over time

<p>Hyperpigmented lesions that range from light to dark brown, do not go away, but may fade or change shape over time </p>
77
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What is congenital dermal melanocytosis? (Mongolian spots)

Flat, gray-blue patches common in darker skinned newborns, often on the lower back, butt, or legs. Caused by melanocytes trapped deep in skin layers. May resemble bruises

<p>Flat, gray-blue patches common in darker skinned newborns, often on the lower back, butt, or legs. Caused by melanocytes trapped deep in skin layers. May resemble bruises</p>
78
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What are stork bites? (Nevus simplex)

Capillary malformations found on eyelids, between eyebrows or nape of neck. Usually fade within 1-2 years of life

<p>Capillary malformations found on eyelids, between eyebrows or nape of neck. Usually fade within 1-2 years of life</p>
79
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What is pseudofolliculitis barbae?

”Razor bumps” - follicularly based erythematous and hyperpigmented papules/pustules. Usually sterile but can become infected. Can lead to hyperpigmentations, hypertrophic scars, or keloids. Treated with topical steroids, benzoyl peroxide, topical antibiotics, and rest form shaving or tight hairstyles

80
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What is cupping?

A cultural therapy where heated cups are placed on the skin, leaving circular erythematous or bruised marks

<p>A cultural therapy where heated cups are placed on the skin, leaving circular erythematous or bruised marks</p>
81
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What is coining?

A cultural practice where a coin in rubbed on the skin, leaving linear erythematous marks or petechia

<p>A cultural practice where a coin in rubbed on the skin, leaving linear erythematous marks or petechia</p>
82
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Why should skin tone be considered in assessments?

Certain conditions may appear differently depending on skin pigmentation, and benign findings may mimic pathology in darker or lighter skin tones

83
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What is the Branden Scale used for?

To determine a patients risk of skin breakdown

84
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What are the 6 criteria of the Branden Scale?

  • Sensory perception

  • Moisture

  • Activity

  • Mobility

  • Nutrition

  • Friction and shear

85
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How is the Branden Scale scored?

Each category is 1-4 (except friction and shear which is 1-3), max score is 23 (higher is better)

86
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What range of score on the Branden Scale indicates no risk?

19-23

87
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What range of score on the Brandon Scale indicates low/mild risk?

15-18

88
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What range of score on the Brandon Scale indicates moderate risk?

13-14

89
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What range on the Brandon Scale indicates high risk?

10-12

90
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What range on the Brandon Scale indicates Severe risk?

9 or below

91
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What is oxygenation?

The process of providing oxygen to cells through adequate gas exchange

92
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What is hypoxemia?

Abnormally low oxygen in the blood (measured through a blood gas)

93
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What is hypoxia?

Insufficient oxygen reaching the tissues (assessed with pulse ox or appearance)

94
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What is clubbing of the nails a sign of?

Chronic hypoxemia due to poor perfusion

95
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Is clubbing reversible and does it require immediate contact to the doctor?

It is irreversible and occurs over a long period of time so it is not something that needs immediate attention, just something to note

96
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Why is cyanosis?

Late sign of hypoxia presented through a color change in the skin

97
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How does cyanosis present in different skin tones?

Lighter skin looks blue and darker skin looks gray or green

98
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What actions can help hypoxia?

  • Elevate the head of the bed

  • Give oxygen

  • Breathing treatments

  • Treat underlying cause

99
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What is perfusion?

Process of the heart transporting blood throughout the body

100
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What is ischemia?

Decreased blood supply