food diet and health

According to the WHO, what is the recommended duration for exclusive breastfeeding before introducing complementary foods? a) 4 months b) 6 months c) Before 17 weeks d) By 26 weeks

b) 6 months

Complementary feeding is defined as: a) The introduction of formula milk alongside breast milk. b) All solid and liquid foods other than breast milk or infant formula and follow-on formula. c) The period when an infant transitions entirely from milk to solid foods. d) Giving additional fluids like water and juice to infants.

All solid and liquid foods other than breastsmilk or.infant formula and follow-on formula

Which of the following nutrients has an increased demand during infancy due to rapid growth and development of the central nervous system? a) Vitamin D b) Zinc c) Iron d) Vitamin A

c) Iron

The European Society for Paediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition (ESPGHAN) recommends that complementary foods should not be introduced before: a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 17 weeks d) 26 weeks

B) 12 months

For infants aged 6-8 months, what is the estimated amount of energy (kcal/day) to be provided by complementary foods for a breastfed infant with developing skills? a) 200 kcal/day b) 300 kcal/day c) 550 kcal/day d) 130 kcal/day

b) 200 kcal/day

At around 8 months of age, what consistency of complementary foods is generally recommended? a) Smooth puréed b) Lumpier foods progressing to finger foods c) Chunky, mashed, chopped d) Semi-solid consistency

D) Semi-solid consistency

Which of the following is recommended to be included daily in an infant's diet as a source of protein during complementary feeding? a) High salt foods b) Sugary drinks c) Cow's milk as the main drink d) Meat, poultry, fish or eggs

d) Meat, poultry, fish or eg

Why is cow's milk not recommended as the main drink before 12 months of age? a) It contains high levels of sugar. b) It is a poor source of iron. c) It is difficult for infants to digest. d) It is likely to cause allergies.

B) poor source al iron

According to a recent ESPGHAN statement, between which age range can gluten be introduced to infants? a) Before 4 completed months b) After 12 completed months c) Between 4 and 12 completed months d) Only after 6 months

Between 4 - 12 completed months

What is a key consideration when feeding infants with a vegetarian diet? a) Avoiding dairy products entirely. b) Primarily focusing on high-fibre foods. c) Ensuring a sufficient amount of milk (about 500 ml/day) and dairy products. d) Discouraging it due to potential deficiencies.

C) ensuring a sufficient amount of milkabout 500 m1/day) und dairy products

Vegan diets are generally discouraged in infancy due to the risk of deficiency in which nutrient that can affect neurodevelopment? a) Iron b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B12

d) Vitamin B12

When introducing new complementary foods to an infant, what does the FSAI recommend? a) Introducing multiple new foods at once to encourage variety. b) Separating new foods by one day to assess tolerance. c) Starting with large portions to meet nutrient needs quickly. d) Only introducing foods with a smooth texture until 12 months.

b)Separating newfoods by one day to assess tolerance

What does "responsive feeding" involve? a) Strictly controlling the amount of food an infant consumes. b) Only offering puréed foods until the infant can self-feed. c) Being sensitive to hunger and satiety cues and encouraging but not forcing feeding. d) Minimizing interaction with the child during feeding to avoid distractions.

C) Being sensitive to hunger and satiety cues and encouraging but not forcing feeding.

What is a characteristic of "baby-led weaning"? a) The caregiver spoon-feeds the infant puréed foods. b) Foods are introduced in a strict sequence based on age. c) Foods are introduced as finger foods, allowing the baby to self-feed. d) It typically starts before 4 months of age.

C) Foods are introduced as fingers foods , allowing the baby to self-food

The National Infant Feeding Survey in Ireland indicated that what percentage of infants receive foods other than breast milk or formula between 3-4 months? a) 75% b) 22.6% c) 46% d) 19%

46%

Early complementary feeding has been suggested to potentially increase the risk of: a) Food allergies. b) Obesity. c) Coeliac disease. d) Vitamin deficiencies.

B) Obesity

What does ESPGHAN consider regarding the age of introduction of complementary food and the risk of obesity? a) There is a clear link showing that earlier introduction increases obesity risk. b) Delayed introduction significantly reduces the risk of obesity. c) The age of introduction does not have a clear impact on the risk of obesity. d) Introduction after 6 months is the safest way to prevent obesity.

The age of introduction does not have a clear impact on the risk of obesity

When introducing potentially allergenic foods, what is recommended? a) Avoiding them entirely in the first year of life. b) Introducing them in large amounts to build tolerance quickly. c) Introducing them one-by-one and in small amounts. d) Delaying their introduction until after 12 months.

Introducing them one-by-one and in small amounts

What factors can influence a child's food preferences? a) Only their genetics. b) Only their environment. c) Genetics, environment, flavours encountered, repeated exposure, and feeding behaviour. d) Only the nutrient content of the foods offered.

genetics, environment, flavours encountered, repeated exposure and feeding behaviour

According to the sources, which of the following is NOT listed as a perspective from which Nutrition for Sport and Exercise can be considered?1A) Tailoring diet towards training goals1 B) Competition nutrition C) Sports psychology D) Athlete health (e.g., bone health, immunity)

Sport psychology

Sports and exercise nutritional recommendations are based on a foundation of scientific evidence combining which two disciplines? A) Psychology and Biomechanics B) Nutrition and Exercise Science C) Anatomy and . Physiology D) Kinesiology and Dietetics

Nutrition and exercise science

Skeletal muscle fibres containing structures and energy stores that allow them to contract and relax are also known as: A) Myofibrils B) Sarcomeres C) Muscle spindles D) Muscle fibres

Muscle fibres

Which type of muscle fibre is described as having a high oxidative capacity and relying primarily on oxidative phosphorylation? A) Fast twitch fibres B) Slow twitch fibres C) Intermediate fibres D) Both equally

B) slow twitch fibres

What is considered the primary "energy currency of life" for muscle contraction? A) Glucose B) Glycogen C) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D) Phosphocreatine (PCr)

C ) ATP

Which two mechanisms for regenerating ATP are described as anaerobic (not requiring oxygen)? A) PCr hydrolysis and Oxidative phosphorylation B) Glycolysis and Oxidative phosphorylation C) PCr hydrolysis and Glycolysis D) TCA cycle and Electron transport chain

C) PCr hydrolysis and Glycolysis

Which ATP regeneration mechanism is described as being "virtually limitless in duration" and providing a lot of ATP, but is slower to initiate? A) PCr hydrolysis B) Glycolysis C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Anaerobic metabolism

C) Oxidative phosphorylation

For exercise lasting more than a few minutes ( and up to several hours, which fuel sources are considered the most important? A) Protein and water B) Carbohydrate and fat C) ATP and PCr D) Vitamins and minerals

b) Carbohydrates and fats

Based on the provided table for a normal man (not an athlete), which energy store holds the largest amount of energy (in kcal)? A) Muscle glycogen B) Liver glycogen C) Adipose tissue D) Intramuscular TAG

C) Adipose tissue

carbohydrate and lipids are always oxidised as a mixture during exercise, but the contribution of each depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor influencing this mixture? A) Exercise intensity B) Exercise duration C) Preceding diet and substrate availability D) Environmental temperature and humidity

D) Environmental temperature and humidity

At what percentage of VO2max does the cross-over point typically occur, where carbohydrate becomes the more dominant fuel source compared to fat oxidation? A) Less than 25% VO2max B) Around 35-50% VO2max C) Greater than 75% VO2max D) This point is the same for all exercise intensities

Greater than 75% VO2max

For explosive, high intensity exercise training like sprints or heavy weight training, which energy systems primarily dominate? A) Aerobic systems B) Anaerobic systems C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Only protein oxidation

B) Anaerobic systems

According to the sources, approximately how long are muscle glycogen stores sufficient to support endurance activity on average? A) 30-45 minutes B) 45-90 minutes C) 90-180 minutes D) Several hours indefinitel

45-90 minutes

What percentage of energy does protein contribute during exercise, according to the estimation provided? A) Less than 5% B) 5-15% C) 20-35% D) More than 50%

5-15%

One of the most important adaptations to endurance training mentioned in the sources is an increased ability to oxidise which fuel source? A) Protein B) Lactate C) Fat D) Vitamins

Lactate

Research presented showed that a high carbohydrate diet during intensified running training resulted in better maintenance of what? A) Hydration status and electrolyte balance B) Muscle mass and strength C) Performance and mood state D) Fat oxidation rate

Performance and mood state

According to the sources, how long does it typically take for muscle glycogen restoration to be completed after heavy or prolonged exercise? A) 0-6 hours B) 6-12 hours C) 12-24 hours D) 24-48 hours

D) 24-48 hours

Which of the following is listed as a key goal of nutrition for sport? A) Minimise energy needs B) Prevent injury/illness C) Decrease training adaptations D) Reduce recovery time excessively

Prevent injury/illness

Energy balance occurs when energy intake equals what? A) Basal metabolic rate (BMR) B) Dietary induced thermogenesis (DIT) C) Total energy expenditure D) Thermic effect of activity (TEA)

Total energy expenditure

inadequate energy intake relative to energy expenditure can compromise performance and lead to which consequence? A) Increased lean tissue mass B) Improved immune function C) Use of fat and lean tissue for fuel D) Higher resting metabolic rate

C) Use of fat and lean tissue for fuel

Current nutrient recommendations for athletes are increasingly expressed in what unit, rather than percentage of total energy intake? A) Grams per hour of training B) Kilocalories per day C) Grams per kilogram of body weight per day D) Milligrams per kilogram of body weight per day

C) Grams per kilogram of body weight per day

For an athlete engaged in moderate training (e.g., 1 hour per day), what is the recommended daily carbohydrate intake? A) 3-5 g/kg/day B) 5-7 g/kg/day C) 6-10 g/kg/day D) 8-12 g/kg/day

B) 5-7 g/kg/day

What is considered the dominant fuel source in most sports, contributing significantly when muscle glycogen and blood glucose are available? A) Fat B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Branched Chain Amino Acids

C) Carbohydrate

The general recommendation for protein intake for adults in the general population is: A) 0.8 g/kg/day B) 1.2 g/kg/day C) 1.6 g/kg/day D) 2.0 g/kg/day

A) 0.8 g/kg/day

For strength-trained athletes, the recommended range for protein intake is approximately: A) 0.8-1.0 g/kg/day B) 1.2-1.7 g/kg/day C) 2.0-2.5 g/kg/day D) 3.0-4.0 g/kg/day

B) 1.2-1.7 g/kg/day

According to the sources, is there scientific evidence that very high protein intakes (e.g., 3-4 g/kg/day) result in further gains in muscle mass/strength compared to recommended levels? A) Yes, absolutely B) No, there is no evidence C) Only for beginner athletes D) Only when combined with specific supplements

B) No, there is no evidence

Which percentage range of total energy intake is recommended for fat consumption for athletes? A) Less than 10% B) 10-20% C) 20-35% D) More than 40%

C) 20-35%

Athletes at greatest risk for poor micronutrient status include those who: A) Consume a high energy, varied diet B) Restrict energy intake or have severe weight-loss practices C) Eat regularly spaced meals containing protein and carbohydrate D) Adequately replenish fuel stores after exercise

B) Restrict energy intake or have severe weight-loss practices

To fully restore muscle glycogen following depletion with adequate carbohydrate intake and rest, approximately how long is generally required? A) 6-12 hours B) 12-24 hours C) 24-36 hours D) 48-72 hours

C) 24-36 hours

The modified carbohydrate loading protocol involves tapering exercise and increasing carbohydrate intake to approximately what percentage of energy intake on the last 3 days? A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 80%

C) 70%

What is one of the key goals of the pre-event meal? A) To significantly increase protein stores B) To deplete liver glycogen C) To ensure the athlete is well hydrated D) To promote gastrointestinal discomfort

C) To ensure the athlete is well hydrated

In general, how long before competition should a solid pre-event meal be eaten? A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 2-4 hours D) 6-8 hours

2-4 hours

Consuming carbohydrates during exercise is recommended for events lasting longer than how many minutes to delay fatigue? A) 30 minutes B) 45 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 90 minutes

C) 60 minutes

The primary goal of post-exercise refuelling is to restore levels of what? A) Plasma fatty acids B) Protein synthesis C) Muscle glycogen D) Branched chain amino acids

C) Muscle glycogen

When there is limited time between exercise sessions, why is it recommended to initiate restoration and recovery as soon as possible after exercise? A) Muscle glycogen restoration rate is highest immediately after exercise B) To immediately remove all lactate C) To promote fat oxidation D) To decrease protein synthesis

A) Muscle glycogen restoration rate is highest immediately after exercise

According to guidelines mentioned, how much fluid should an athlete aim to replace for every 1kg of body weight lost during exercise? A) 1 litre B) 1.5 litres C) 2 litres D) 0.5 litres

B) 1.5 litres

What is described as the most important mechanism involved in body temperature regulation during exercise? A) Ventilation B) Urine excretion C) Sweat D) Non-sweat losses via skin

C) Sweat

.

Which of the following is listed as a practical method to monitor hydration status? A) Plasma osmolality test B) 24-hour urine collection C) Subjective analysis of urine colour D) Blood protein levels

C) Subjective analysis of urine colour

According to the sources, thirst is considered a poor indicator for what? A) Adequate fluid intake B) Dehydration C) Electrolyte balance D) Body temperature regulation

B) Dehydration

What scientific field examines nutrient-related functions and interactions with genes and their effects on health and disease? A) Proteomics B) Metabolomics C) Genomics D) Nutrigenomics

D) Nutrigenomics

Dietary advice based on genetic makeup, which could involve sending a DNA sample for sequencing to create a personalised plan, is referred to as: A) Phenotype-based nutrition advice B) General population guidelines C) Genotype-based nutrition advice D) Standard dietary recommendations

C) Genotype-based nutrition advice

A research example discussed shows that individuals with the GA or AA variant of the ACE gene are at greater risk of elevated blood pressure with high intake of what? A) Carbohydrate B) Fat C) Sodium D) Protein

C) Sodium

Dietary advice based on observable characteristics and traits resulting from the interaction of genetics, environment, and lifestyle is referred to as: A) Genotype-based nutrition advice B) Population-based advice C) Phenotype-based nutrition advice D) Nutrigenomic analysis

C) Phenotype-based nutrition advice

.

Advances in genomics have led to developments in the study of proteins (proteomics) and the study of metabolites, which is known as: A) Metabolomics B) Nutrigenomics C) Physiology D) Biochemistry

A) Metabolomics

in developed countries, what age is typically used as the arbitrary cut-off point to define "old age"? a) 50 years b) 60 years c) 65 years d) 70 years

c) 65 years

What proportional change is projected for the Irish population aged over 85 years compared to 2012 estimates? a) It is expected to decrease by half b) It is expected to remain stable c) It is expected to double d) It is expected to increase by 2.5 times

d) It is expected to increase by 2.5 times

Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor contributing to increased human life expectancy in the sources? a) Better nutrition b) Improved healthcare c) Genetic engineering d) Social and economic improvements

c) Genetic engineering

According to the sources, what approximate percentage of older adults (over 65) could be considered "frail elderly"? a) About 10% b) About 30% c) About 60% d) About 90%

b) About 30%

For the group referred to as the 'frail elderly', what opportunity is specifically mentioned alongside the risk of becoming dependent? a) The opportunity to travel more b) The opportunity to build strength c) The opportunity to pursue further education d) The opportunity to receive a higher pension

b) The opportunity to build strength

What is identified as the main nutritional risk for the 10% of older adults who are dependent on carers? a) Obesity b) Overnutrition c) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM) d) Vitamin C deficiency

c) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)

Besides genetics, which of these lifestyle factors is highlighted as having a strong influence on the biological ageing process and contributing to physiological deterioration? a) Regular moderate alcohol consumption b) Good sleeping habits c) A sedentary lifestyle d) High intake of fruits and vegetables

c) A sedentary lifestyle

Reduced physical activity in older adults primarily leads to a loss of which body component, resulting in a decline in basal metabolic rate? a) Bone mass b) Body fat c) Muscle d) Organ size

c) Muscle

According to the sources, which of these is a key prevention strategy for older individuals to increase their physiological and nutritional reserves?
a) Avoiding all social activities
b) Consuming a limited variety of foods
c) Engaging in physical activity to maintain lean mass
d) Increasing substance abuse

c) Engaging in physical activity to maintain lean mass

Age-related changes in the immune system primarily put older adults at greater risk of what?
a) Increased muscle mass
b) Infection and chronic diseases
c) Improved nutrient absorption
d) Reduced need for vaccination

b) Infection and chronic diseases

Atrophic gastritis, common in older adults, is characterised by which of the following?
a) Increased production of hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
b) Faster gastrointestinal motility
c) An inflamed stomach, bacterial overgrowth, and lack of hydrochloric acid/intrinsic factor
d) Improved absorption of all nutrients

c) An inflamed stomach, bacterial overgrowth, and lack of hydrochloric acid/intrinsic factor

Atrophic gastritis in older adults may compromise the absorption of which specific vitamins and minerals? a) Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Potassium, Sodium b) Vitamin K, Folate, Magnesium, Iron c) Vitamin B12, Biotin, Calcium, Iron d) Thiamine, Riboflavin, Zinc, Phosphorus

c) Vitamin B12, Biotin, Calcium, Iron

How might tooth loss or gum disease negatively influence the dietary choices of older adults?
a) It makes chewing easier, leading to increased food variety
b) It has no impact on food choices
c) It can make chewing painful, potentially resulting in reduced food variety
d) It only affects the absorption of nutrients, not food choices

c) It can make chewing painful, potentially resulting in reduced food variety

The sources primarily use the term "malnutrition" to refer to which specific condition?
a) Overnutrition (getting too many nutrients)
b) Undernutrition (not getting enough nutrients)
c) A balanced intake of all nutrients
d) High energy intake regardless of nutrient content

b) Undernutrition (not getting enough nutrients)

Malnutrition is considered a significant and costly public health issue, particularly affecting older people. According to the European Parliament, how does the cost of malnutrition in older people compare to the cost of obesity and overweight to European healthcare systems?
a) It costs significantly less
b) It costs significantly more
c) It costs similar amounts
d) The costs are not comparable

b) It costs significantly more

What percentage of older people living in acute care hospitals in Ireland are estimated to be malnourished, based on UK rates?
a) 3–12%
b) 17–65%
c) 26–59%
d) More than 90%

b) 17–65%

According to Professor Bruno Vellas, what condition is considered the starting point of the "Cycle of Frailty"?
a) Sarcopenia
b) Chronic undernutrition
c) Reduced energy expenditure
d) Increased dependency

a) Sarcopenia

Which of the following is listed as a psychological factor that can contribute to inadequate food intake and increase the risk of malnutrition in older adults?
a) Sensory impairment
b) Poor dental health
c) Isolation
d) Depression

d) Depression

Which subgroup of older adults is specifically identified as being nutritionally vulnerable or at higher risk of malnutrition?
a) Healthy older adults who are very active
b) Older adults with high socioeconomic status
c) Older men living alone
d) Older adults who are socially engaged

c) Older men living alone

Evidence from UK studies suggests that screening programmes and the use of Oral Nutrition Supplements (ONS) for malnourished older adults can lead to improved health outcomes, such as:
a) Increased mortality
b) Reduced complications
c) Increased length of hospital stay
d) Diminished cognitive function

b) Reduced complications

Which of the following is NOT listed as a component that should be considered when assessing the nutritional status of older adults?
a) Anthropometry and body composition
b) Food and nutrient intakes
c) Biochemistry, haematology, and immunology
d) Social media activity

d) Social media activity

The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) and the Mini Nutrition Assessment (MNA) are mentioned as examples of what?
a) Dietary supplements for older adults
b) Validated screening tools for identifying malnutrition risk
c) Exercise programmes for frail elderly
d) Guidelines for preventing falls in older adults

b) Validated screening tools for identifying malnutrition risk

What is one practical intervention strategy health professionals might use to improve the nutritional status of older adults at risk of malnutrition?
a) Restricting food variety
b) Advising larger, less frequent meals
c) Meal fortification
d) Discouraging the use of Oral Nutritional Supplements (ONS)

c) Meal fortification

What characterises dementia?
a) A sudden and complete loss of memory
b) Increased ability to engage in everyday skills
c) Progressive decline in cognitive function and changes in personality or behaviour
d) No change in daily skills but impaired memory

c) Progressive decline in cognitive function and changes in personality or behaviour

Which specific dietary components are associated with an increased risk of cognitive impairment and Alzheimer's Disease according to the sources?
a) High intake of fruits and vegetables
b) Low intakes of vitamin B6, B12, folate, and n-3 fatty acids
c) A diet rich in antioxidants
d) Adherence to a Mediterranean diet

b) Low intakes of vitamin B6, B12, folate, and n-3 fatty acids

Long-term intervention studies mentioned in the sources have shown that adhering to a Mediterranean diet and engaging in physical activity has what impact on Alzheimer's Disease risk?
a) It increases the risk of disease progression
b) It has no significant effect on risk
c) It reduces the risk of developing Alzheimer's Disease
d) It only impacts physical health, not cognitive risk

c) It reduces the risk of developing Alzheimer's Disease

Why are individuals with Alzheimer's Disease particularly susceptible to malnutrition in the early stage?
a) They lose the ability to swallow immediately
b) They may have difficulty shopping or preparing food
c) They refuse to eat any food
d) Their energy requirements significantly decrease

b) They may have difficulty shopping or preparing food

What is the primary goal of nutritional management for Alzheimer's patients in the late stage of the disease?
a) To improve cognitive function through specific nutrients
b) To achieve a balanced diet with adequate energy and nutrients
c) To prevent detrimental weight loss
d) To increase appetite

c) To prevent detrimental weight loss

What is osteoporosis?
a) Increased bone mass and mineral density
b) A disease where bones become fragile with increased fracture risk
c) A condition characterised by increased muscle mass
d) A form of arthritis

b) A disease where bones become fragile with increased fracture risk

When is peak bone mass typically achieved?
a) In infancy
b) Between the ages of 20 and 30 years
c) Around menopause in women
d) After the age of 65

b) Between the ages of 20 and 30 years

Achieving optimal peak bone mass is important for preventing osteoporosis in later life. Which of the following contributes to achieving optimal peak bone mass?
a) High caffeine intake
b) Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake in childhood and adolescence
c) Avoiding physical activity
d) Smoking

b) Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake in childhood and adolescence

Why is it crucial for older adults to consume a nutrient-rich diet, even if their overall energy requirements are lower than when they were younger?
a) Lower energy intake is always associated with better health
b) Their nutrient needs are the same or higher, requiring adequate intake from a lower total food intake
c) Lower energy needs automatically mean lower nutrient needs
d) Nutrient absorption improves with age, so less is needed

b) Their nutrient needs are the same or higher, requiring adequate intake from a lower total food intake

Based on the National Adult Nutrition Survey (NANS) data for free-living older adults in Ireland, which specific micronutrient intake was inadequate for 17% of women in this group?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Iron
d) Calcium

d) Calcium

Older adults are at greater risk of Vitamin B12 deficiency. What is one reason cited for this risk?
a) Increased dietary intake of B12 with age
b) Improved absorption due to changes in the gastrointestinal tract
c) Age-related decrease in absorption due to changes in hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
d) Higher requirement for B12 in older age

c) Age-related decrease in absorption due to changes in hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

Which physiological change contributes to the increased risk of dehydration in older adults?
a) Improved thirst perception
b) Increased total body water
c) Reduced renal function
d) Thicker skin

c) Reduced renal function

What is the recommended range for daily fluid intake for older adults?
a) 500–1000 ml
b) 1000–1200 ml
c) 1200–1500 ml
d) 1500–2000 ml

d) 1500–2000 ml

What benefit is associated with greater dietary diversity in older age?
a) Decreased longevity
b) Increased morbidity
c) Less morbidity and greater longevity
d) No impact on health outcomes

c) Less morbidity and greater longevity