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What is the technical name for a clamp?
a. compressor
b. forceps
c. hemostat
d. stabilize
c. hemostat
Which scalpel handle would accommodate a #20 disposable knife blade?
a. #3
b. #4
c. #7
d. #9
b. #4
What term describes an instrument, such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent
or modified to accommodate for variances in anatomy?
a. alterable
b. changeable
c. malleable
d. shapable
c. malleable
Weitlaner, O'Connor-O'Sullivan, and Balfour are examples of:
a. bone-holding forceps
b. handheld retractors
c. noncrushing clamps
d. self-retaining retractors
d. self-retaining retractors
Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and nonmagnetizing?
a. chromium
b. stainless steel
c. titanium
d. tungsten carbide
c. titanium
What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?
a. secretions
b. serrations
c. striations
d. suppressions
b. serrations
Which suction tip is indicated for use in the nasopharynx and often called a "tonsil" or
"oral" suction?
a. Adson
b. Frazier
c. Poole
d. Yankauer
d. Yankauer
The joint of a hemostat where one half of the instrument passes through the other is called
the:
a. articulation
b. box lock
c. jaw
d. ratchets
b. box lock
Which scissors are often called "suture scissors" and are typically straight and relatively
blunt tipped?
a. Castroviejo
b. Jorgenson
c. Mayo
d. Westcott
c. Mayo
The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?
a. arthroscopy
b. craniotomy
c. laparotomy
d. tonsillectomy
d. tonsillectomy
Which classification of instruments can be of a tweezer-like or ringed and ratcheted
configuration?
a. cutting and dissecting
b. dilating and probing
c. grasping and holding
d. retracting and exposing
c. grasping and holding
In medical terminology, which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device?
a. -graph
b. -orrhaphy
c. -scope
d. -tome
d. -tome
Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a
natural body orifice?
a. flexible ureteroscope
b. flexible colonoscope
c. rigid hysteroscope
d. rigid sigmoidoscope
a. flexible ureteroscope
All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments
EXCEPT:
a. operating
b. oscillating
c. reciprocating
d. rotary
a. operating
Which part of the operating microscope is most proximal to the target tissue?
a. beam splitter
b. hand controls
c. objective lens
d. ocular lenses
c. objective lens
Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity
compression?
a. phaco-emulsifier
b. pneumatic tourniquet
c. sequential compression device
d. suction system
b. pneumatic tourniquet
Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the
eyes and ears?
a. aperture
b. incise
c. nonfenestrated
d. stockinette
a. aperture
Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent occlusion by the
intestines in a laparotomy?
a. Baron
b. Frazier
c. Poole
d. Yankauer
c. Poole
Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by an
anesthesia provider to determine location, function, or conduction of certain anatomical
structures?
a. bayonet ESU bipolar forceps
b. cryotherapy unit
c. nerve stimulator
d. phaco-emulsifier
c. nerve stimulator
Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab
wound for drain placement?
a. #10
b. #11
c. #12
d. #20
b. #11
What type of surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four
overhead operating lights?
a. bariatrics
b. open heart
c. plastic reconstructive
d. urology and cystoscopy
b. open heart
What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?
a. fenestration
b. orifice
c. slot
d. window
a. fenestration
The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate
neural structures are called:
a. Cottonoids
b. Kitners
c. laps
d. Ray-Tecs
a. Cottonoids
Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and
spica casts fall?
a. bulky
b. one-layer
c. pressure
d. rigid
d. rigid
A drain dressing is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the
patient's body?
a. T
b. V
c. X
d. Y
d. Y
Which of the following drains works by passive action?
a. Hemovac
b. Jackson-Pratt
c. Penrose
d. Stryker
c. Penrose
Which type of syringe has no calibrations?
a. Asepto
b. bulb/ear
c. Luer-Lok
d. Luer-Slip
b. bulb/ear
By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound?
a. active
b. capillary
c. suction
d. wicking
d. wicking
Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:
a. dilators
b. dissectors
c. drains
d. dressings
a. dilators
Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serrations for
stabilization?
a. handheld retractor
b. needle holder
c. pneumatic drill
d. vascular clamp
b. needle holder
What is the name of the paired parts of a hemostat that span between the box lock and the
finger rings?
a. jaws
b. ratchets
c. shanks
d. tips
c. shanks
Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument?
a. hemostats
b. retractors
c. scissors
d. tissue forceps
c. scissors
Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?
a. alternating current
b. direct current
c. nitrogen
d. solar
d. solar
Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepackaged in units of five?
a. Cottonoids
b. dissectors
c. laparotomy
d. Ray-Tecs
b. dissectors
Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical
dressing?
a. one-layer
b. pressure
c. rigid
d. three-layer
a. one-layer
Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, and plain 4 x 4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a
three-layer dressing?
a. absorbent intermediate layer
b. binding outer layer
c. occlusive contact layer
d. permeable contact layer
a. absorbent intermediate layer
A patient with a major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have
which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation of the skin by constant removal of
adhesive tape?
a. bolster
b. Montgomery straps
c. Minerva jacket
d. Queen Anne collar
b. Montgomery straps
Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin's solution are used to facilitate mechanical
debridement in which type of dressing?
a. bolster
b. perineal
c. pressure
d. wet-to-dry
d. wet-to-dry
What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on
x-rays to prevent a retained item?
a. radiofrequency
b. radiographic
c. radiolucent
d. radiopaque
d. radiopaque
What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile
surgical drapes?
a. circle
b. rectangle
c. square
d. triangle
c. square
All of the following are varieties of draping materials EXCEPT:
a. aluminum coated
b. latex sheeting
c. plastic adhesive
d. polyester bonded with cellulose
b. latex sheeting
Which device is used unsterilely in surgery for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?
a. intravascular catheter
b. nerve stimulator
c. pneumatic tourniquet
d. sequential compression device
d. sequential compression device
The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:
a. location of the incision or wound
b. type and amount of drainage expected
c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op
d. condition of the incision/wound upon closure
c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op
Which type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with
iodine or other antimicrobial agent?
a. gauze packing strips
b. incise drapes
c. occlusive contact dressing
d. radiopaque surgical sponges
d. radiopaque surgical sponges
Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a
cystoscope?
a. Foley
b. Pezzer
c. ureteral
d. Malecot
c. ureteral
The three lumens of a three-way Foley catheter are used for balloon inflation, urinary
drainage, and:
a. continuous irrigation
b. decompression of the urethra
c. extraction of calculi
d. insufflation of carbon dioxide
a. continuous irrigation
Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to
prevent dislodgement?
a. Coude´
b. Foley
c. red Robinson
d. suprapubic
d. suprapubic
What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?
a. decompress the bladder
b. instill contrast media into the biliary system
c. monitor central venous pressure changes
d. provide access for peritoneal dialysis
c. monitor central venous pressure changes
Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR
table?
a. Balfour
b. Bookwalter
c. Greenburg
d. Thompson
a. Balfour
During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the
intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at:
a. 8 -10 mm Hg
b. 10-12 mm Hg
c. 12-15 mm Hg
d. 15-20 mm Hg
c. 12-15 mm Hg
What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
b. two
In general, after what length of continuous pneumatic tourniquet use should the extremity
be allowed to reperfuse before reinflating the tourniquet?
a. 30 minutes
b. one hour
c. 90 minutes
d. two hours
b. one hour
How are Ray-Tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is
open?
a. They cannot be used at all.
b. They should be opened to full length.
c. They should have rings attached to them.
d. They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge sticks."
d. They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge sticks."
GI, chest, and airway are types of:
a. tubes
b. drains
c. catheters
d. instruments
a. tubes
Why must chest tubes be attached to a water-seal drainage system?
a. to keep the pleural cavity humid
b. to add weight to the drainage device to keep it upright
c. to keep the microbial count in the drainage from reentering
d. to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure
for respiration
d. to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure
for respiration