10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies

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55 Terms

1
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What is the technical name for a clamp?

a. compressor

b. forceps

c. hemostat

d. stabilize

c. hemostat

2
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Which scalpel handle would accommodate a #20 disposable knife blade?

a. #3

b. #4

c. #7

d. #9

b. #4

3
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What term describes an instrument, such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent

or modified to accommodate for variances in anatomy?

a. alterable

b. changeable

c. malleable

d. shapable

c. malleable

4
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Weitlaner, O'Connor-O'Sullivan, and Balfour are examples of:

a. bone-holding forceps

b. handheld retractors

c. noncrushing clamps

d. self-retaining retractors

d. self-retaining retractors

5
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Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and nonmagnetizing?

a. chromium

b. stainless steel

c. titanium

d. tungsten carbide

c. titanium

6
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What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?

a. secretions

b. serrations

c. striations

d. suppressions

b. serrations

7
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Which suction tip is indicated for use in the nasopharynx and often called a "tonsil" or

"oral" suction?

a. Adson

b. Frazier

c. Poole

d. Yankauer

d. Yankauer

8
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The joint of a hemostat where one half of the instrument passes through the other is called

the:

a. articulation

b. box lock

c. jaw

d. ratchets

b. box lock

9
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Which scissors are often called "suture scissors" and are typically straight and relatively

blunt tipped?

a. Castroviejo

b. Jorgenson

c. Mayo

d. Westcott

c. Mayo

10
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The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?

a. arthroscopy

b. craniotomy

c. laparotomy

d. tonsillectomy

d. tonsillectomy

11
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Which classification of instruments can be of a tweezer-like or ringed and ratcheted

configuration?

a. cutting and dissecting

b. dilating and probing

c. grasping and holding

d. retracting and exposing

c. grasping and holding

12
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In medical terminology, which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device?

a. -graph

b. -orrhaphy

c. -scope

d. -tome

d. -tome

13
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Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a

natural body orifice?

a. flexible ureteroscope

b. flexible colonoscope

c. rigid hysteroscope

d. rigid sigmoidoscope

a. flexible ureteroscope

14
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All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments

EXCEPT:

a. operating

b. oscillating

c. reciprocating

d. rotary

a. operating

15
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Which part of the operating microscope is most proximal to the target tissue?

a. beam splitter

b. hand controls

c. objective lens

d. ocular lenses

c. objective lens

16
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Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity

compression?

a. phaco-emulsifier

b. pneumatic tourniquet

c. sequential compression device

d. suction system

b. pneumatic tourniquet

17
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Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the

eyes and ears?

a. aperture

b. incise

c. nonfenestrated

d. stockinette

a. aperture

18
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Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent occlusion by the

intestines in a laparotomy?

a. Baron

b. Frazier

c. Poole

d. Yankauer

c. Poole

19
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Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by an

anesthesia provider to determine location, function, or conduction of certain anatomical

structures?

a. bayonet ESU bipolar forceps

b. cryotherapy unit

c. nerve stimulator

d. phaco-emulsifier

c. nerve stimulator

20
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Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab

wound for drain placement?

a. #10

b. #11

c. #12

d. #20

b. #11

21
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What type of surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four

overhead operating lights?

a. bariatrics

b. open heart

c. plastic reconstructive

d. urology and cystoscopy

b. open heart

22
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What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?

a. fenestration

b. orifice

c. slot

d. window

a. fenestration

23
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The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate

neural structures are called:

a. Cottonoids

b. Kitners

c. laps

d. Ray-Tecs

a. Cottonoids

24
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Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and

spica casts fall?

a. bulky

b. one-layer

c. pressure

d. rigid

d. rigid

25
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A drain dressing is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the

patient's body?

a. T

b. V

c. X

d. Y

d. Y

26
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Which of the following drains works by passive action?

a. Hemovac

b. Jackson-Pratt

c. Penrose

d. Stryker

c. Penrose

27
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Which type of syringe has no calibrations?

a. Asepto

b. bulb/ear

c. Luer-Lok

d. Luer-Slip

b. bulb/ear

28
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By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound?

a. active

b. capillary

c. suction

d. wicking

d. wicking

29
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Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:

a. dilators

b. dissectors

c. drains

d. dressings

a. dilators

30
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Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serrations for

stabilization?

a. handheld retractor

b. needle holder

c. pneumatic drill

d. vascular clamp

b. needle holder

31
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What is the name of the paired parts of a hemostat that span between the box lock and the

finger rings?

a. jaws

b. ratchets

c. shanks

d. tips

c. shanks

32
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Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument?

a. hemostats

b. retractors

c. scissors

d. tissue forceps

c. scissors

33
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Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?

a. alternating current

b. direct current

c. nitrogen

d. solar

d. solar

34
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Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepackaged in units of five?

a. Cottonoids

b. dissectors

c. laparotomy

d. Ray-Tecs

b. dissectors

35
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Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical

dressing?

a. one-layer

b. pressure

c. rigid

d. three-layer

a. one-layer

36
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Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, and plain 4 x 4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a

three-layer dressing?

a. absorbent intermediate layer

b. binding outer layer

c. occlusive contact layer

d. permeable contact layer

a. absorbent intermediate layer

37
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A patient with a major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have

which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation of the skin by constant removal of

adhesive tape?

a. bolster

b. Montgomery straps

c. Minerva jacket

d. Queen Anne collar

b. Montgomery straps

38
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Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin's solution are used to facilitate mechanical

debridement in which type of dressing?

a. bolster

b. perineal

c. pressure

d. wet-to-dry

d. wet-to-dry

39
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What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on

x-rays to prevent a retained item?

a. radiofrequency

b. radiographic

c. radiolucent

d. radiopaque

d. radiopaque

40
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What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile

surgical drapes?

a. circle

b. rectangle

c. square

d. triangle

c. square

41
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All of the following are varieties of draping materials EXCEPT:

a. aluminum coated

b. latex sheeting

c. plastic adhesive

d. polyester bonded with cellulose

b. latex sheeting

42
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Which device is used unsterilely in surgery for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?

a. intravascular catheter

b. nerve stimulator

c. pneumatic tourniquet

d. sequential compression device

d. sequential compression device

43
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The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:

a. location of the incision or wound

b. type and amount of drainage expected

c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op

d. condition of the incision/wound upon closure

c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op

44
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Which type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with

iodine or other antimicrobial agent?

a. gauze packing strips

b. incise drapes

c. occlusive contact dressing

d. radiopaque surgical sponges

d. radiopaque surgical sponges

45
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Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a

cystoscope?

a. Foley

b. Pezzer

c. ureteral

d. Malecot

c. ureteral

46
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The three lumens of a three-way Foley catheter are used for balloon inflation, urinary

drainage, and:

a. continuous irrigation

b. decompression of the urethra

c. extraction of calculi

d. insufflation of carbon dioxide

a. continuous irrigation

47
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Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to

prevent dislodgement?

a. Coude´

b. Foley

c. red Robinson

d. suprapubic

d. suprapubic

48
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What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?

a. decompress the bladder

b. instill contrast media into the biliary system

c. monitor central venous pressure changes

d. provide access for peritoneal dialysis

c. monitor central venous pressure changes

49
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Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR

table?

a. Balfour

b. Bookwalter

c. Greenburg

d. Thompson

a. Balfour

50
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During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the

intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at:

a. 8 -10 mm Hg

b. 10-12 mm Hg

c. 12-15 mm Hg

d. 15-20 mm Hg

c. 12-15 mm Hg

51
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What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

b. two

52
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In general, after what length of continuous pneumatic tourniquet use should the extremity

be allowed to reperfuse before reinflating the tourniquet?

a. 30 minutes

b. one hour

c. 90 minutes

d. two hours

b. one hour

53
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How are Ray-Tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is

open?

a. They cannot be used at all.

b. They should be opened to full length.

c. They should have rings attached to them.

d. They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge sticks."

d. They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge sticks."

54
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GI, chest, and airway are types of:

a. tubes

b. drains

c. catheters

d. instruments

a. tubes

55
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Why must chest tubes be attached to a water-seal drainage system?

a. to keep the pleural cavity humid

b. to add weight to the drainage device to keep it upright

c. to keep the microbial count in the drainage from reentering

d. to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure

for respiration

d. to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure

for respiration