EMT exam 1 possible questions

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Last updated 7:49 AM on 9/2/26
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118 Terms

1
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What 1966 legislation charged the U.S. DOT with developing EMS standards and helping states upgrade prehospital care?

The National Highway Safety Act (Charged the DOT with developing EMS standards nationwide.)

2
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Which organization was founded in 1970 to establish professional standards for EMS providers?

The National Registry of EMTs (NREMT)

3
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Which sequence correctly lists EMS training levels from least to most advanced?

EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic

4
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A physical trait expected of an EMT, per the course outline, is the ability to lift and carry up to how many pounds?

125 pounds

5
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Standing orders that authorize an EMT to perform certain skills without contacting a physician are referred to as which type of medical direction?

Off-line medical direction

6
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What is the correct order of the evidence-based process for EMS as described in the outline?

Form a hypothesis, review literature, evaluate the evidence, adopt the practice if supported

7
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Which bloodborne disease of concern has a vaccine available, unlike its counterpart?

Hepatitis B (Hep B has a vaccine; Hep C does not.)

8
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When caring for a patient suspected of having tuberculosis, which respiratory protection is required?

A NIOSH-approved N-95 or HEPA respirator

9
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The Ryan White CARE Act primarily establishes procedures for what purpose?

Allowing emergency responders to find out if they were exposed to life-threatening infectious diseases on a call

10
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A Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) is generally held within what timeframe after a major incident?

24 to 72 hours

11
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Which is the correct order of the emotional stages a dying patient may go through?

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance (Kubler-Ross stages of grief)

12
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According to the course outline, what should you do before treating a patient at a hazardous materials incident?

Wait until the patient has undergone decontamination

13
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When using a power grip, how far apart should your hands be, if possible?

At least 10 inches

14
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Per proper body mechanics, you should avoid reaching more than how many inches in front of your body?

20 inches

15
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A stair chair should NOT be used for which type of patient?

A patient with a suspected neck or spine injury (or unresponsive/airway-care patients)

16
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Which of the following is a situation calling for an emergency move rather than an urgent or nonurgent move?

The scene is hazardous and poses immediate danger

17
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When carrying a stretcher over rough terrain, it can be carried by how many EMTs, one at each corner?

Four

18
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What is recommended when lifting or pushing/pulling heavy objects, according to body mechanics principles?

Push rather than pull whenever possible

19
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Consent that is assumed for an unconscious patient who needs emergency care is called what?

Implied consent

20
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Which of the following is one of the two most common and significant causes of lawsuits against EMTs, per the outline?

Patient refusal of care (along with ambulance collisions)

21
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A legal document signed by a patient and physician stating the patient does not wish resuscitative efforts is called what?

A DNR (do not resuscitate) order

22
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Good Samaritan laws generally do NOT protect a rescuer from which of the following?

Acts of gross negligence

23
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If an EMT begins care and leaves the patient without turning them over to someone with equal or greater training, this is considered what?

Abandonment

24
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Under a safe haven law, where may a person legally leave an infant or child?

Any police, fire, or EMS station, or with available public safety personnel

25
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Which term refers to a position closer to the midline of the body?

Medial

26
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A plane that slices the body into front and back halves is called what?

Frontal (coronal) plane

27
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Which position is preferred for an unconscious, non-trauma patient?

Recovery position (lateral recumbent)

28
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In the Fowler position, the patient is typically seated at what angle range?

45 to 60 degrees

29
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The abdomen is divided into how many quadrants by lines drawn through the navel?

Four (RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ)

30
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Which term describes a position farther away from the torso, such as the hand relative to the shoulder?

Distal

31
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How many vertebrae make up the spinal column, and how many divisions are they organized into?

33 vertebrae in 5 divisions (Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx)

32
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How many pairs of ribs are there, and how many are 'floating' with no anterior attachment?

12 pairs total, 2 floating

33
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What unique property allows cardiac muscle to generate and conduct its own electrical impulses?

Automaticity

34
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Which pulses are considered 'central pulses' because they can be felt even when peripheral pulses are too weak?

Carotid and femoral

35
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The pressure in the arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called what?

Systolic pressure

36
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Inadequate circulation of blood through the body's organs, which can be serious and lead to death, is called what?

Hypoperfusion (shock)

37
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Which type of metabolism occurs in the absence of oxygen and produces lactic acid as a byproduct?

Anaerobic metabolism

38
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Approximately what percentage of the body is made up of water?

60 percent

39
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Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of shock described in the outline?

Neurogenic shock (not one of the 4 named: hypovolemic, distributive, cardiogenic, obstructive)

40
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What term describes the body's ability to compensate and maintain normal function despite hypoperfusion?

Compensated shock

41
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When air in the alveoli is sufficiently matched with blood flow in the pulmonary capillaries, this is called what?

Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) match

42
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Which body fluid compartment holds the largest percentage of the body's water?

Intracellular (inside cells) - about 70%

43
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A newborn's birth weight typically doubles by what age?

6 months (triples by 12 months)

44
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The anterior fontanelle usually closes between which ages?

9 to 18 months

45
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Which infant reflex causes a baby to turn their head toward the side of their cheek that is touched when hungry?

Rooting reflex

46
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During which developmental stage does peak physical condition typically occur?

Early adulthood, ages 19-26

47
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Which is described as the major killer after age 40, according to the life span development outline?

Heart disease

48
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Which developmental stage is specifically noted for common eating disorders, self-destructive behaviors, and elevated depression/suicide risk?

Adolescence (13-18 years)

49
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What does 'enhanced 911' automatically provide to communication centers?

Automatically identifies the caller's phone number and location

50
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Which of the following is one of the NHTSA Technical Assistance Program's standards for assessing EMS systems?

Medical direction

51
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Which of these is listed as one of the roles and responsibilities of the EMT?

Patient advocacy

52
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Which personal trait is listed as important for a good EMT?

Nonjudgmental and fair

53
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What best describes the quality improvement (QI) process in EMS?

Continuous self-review to identify and correct system problems

54
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Contacting the on-duty physician by radio or phone before performing a skill or administering medication is called what?

On-line medical direction

55
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What is the correct order of the scientific method as outlined for EMS research?

General observations, hypothesis, test predictions, prove/disprove

56
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What does 'peer reviewed' mean in the context of medical research quality?

A study submitted to a journal and reviewed by the researcher's peers

57
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What are 'Standard Precautions' as defined in the course outline?

Equipment and procedures that protect you and the patient from blood/body fluids

58
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Any situation requiring a gown also requires which other PPE, per the outline?

Gloves, eye protection, and a mask

59
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Which disease's later signs include bruising and internal/external bleeding, after initial fever, chills, and weakness?

Ebola

60
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Which set of signs and symptoms is associated with tuberculosis (TB)?

Productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, and fever

61
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Which of the listed immunization-related items has NO immunization available (only a skin test)?

Tuberculosis (via TST)

62
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What term describes the positive form of stress that helps people work effectively under pressure?

Eustress

63
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What does the 'e-SCAPe' curriculum stand for in preventing psychological trauma?

Every patient, Social Support, Choice and Control, Anticipate, Plan and Organize, Every time

64
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Which resource provides information on safe distances and procedures for hazardous materials incidents, based on placard codes?

The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

65
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What three-step framework does the outline describe for scene safety regarding potential violence?

Plan, Observe, React

66
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Which is a core rule of proper body mechanics when lifting a patient?

Use your legs, not your back

67
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What technique defines the 'power lift' for safely lifting patients?

Squatting rather than bending at the waist

68
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Which type of stretcher is specifically constructed to transport obese patients?

Bariatric stretcher

69
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Which patient-carrying device splits into two pieces vertically?

Scoop stretcher

70
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Which device is primarily used for removing patients from vehicles when a neck or spine injury is suspected?

Short spine board

71
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Which position should a patient believed to be in shock be placed in?

Supine position (flat on back)

72
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Which technique is used to lift a patient from the ground directly to a stretcher?

Direct ground lift

73
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The care that would be expected from an EMT with similar training in a similar situation is called what?

Standard of care

74
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What term describes a school authority or childcare provider acting 'in place of parents' to give consent?

In loco parentis

75
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What conditions must be met for a patient to legally refuse care?

Must be legally able to consent, awake and oriented, and fully informed

76
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A signed statement addressing use of long-term life support and comfort measures like respirators and IV feedings is called what?

Living will

77
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Which three elements must all be proven for a finding of negligence against an EMT?

Duty, breach of standard of care, and proximate causation

78
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In many states, what is true regarding an off-duty EMT's legal duty to act?

In many states, has no legal obligation to provide care

79
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False or injurious information about someone shared verbally is called what?

Slander (libel is written)

80
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How should emergency care differ for a patient recognized as an organ donor?

Care should not differ from a non-donor's care; contact medical direction

81
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Which categories of incidents do many states require EMTs to report?

Suspected abuse, human trafficking, violence, and sexual assault

82
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Standards of behavior for those who practice a certain profession are called what, as distinguished from personal beliefs about right and wrong?

Ethics

83
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Which word part is the foundation of a medical term and is not used by itself?

Root

84
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What is the 'anatomic position' used as a reference for describing body locations?

Standing, facing forward, with palms forward

85
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Which plane slices the body into top and bottom halves?

Transverse (horizontal) plane

86
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What do the terms 'superior' and 'inferior' describe in anatomical terminology?

Superior means above; inferior means below

87
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Which term refers to the sole of the foot?

Plantar (vs palmar for hand)

88
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A patient lying face-down on their abdomen is described as being in which position?

Prone

89
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Which pelvic structure, along with the proximal femur, forms the hip joint?

Acetabulum

90
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Which bone is the medial and larger bone of the lower leg, commonly called the shinbone?

Tibia

91
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The elbow is an example of which type of joint?

Hinge joint

92
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Which type of muscle is found in the GI system, lungs, blood vessels, and urinary system, and cannot be consciously controlled?

Involuntary (smooth) muscle

93
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Which structure closes over the glottis to prevent food and foreign objects from entering the trachea?

Epiglottis

94
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Which respiratory process is active, involving muscle contraction that creates negative pressure to pull air into the lungs?

Inhalation

95
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Which artery is checked when taking a pulse at the wrist?

Radial artery

96
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Which blood component releases chemical clotting factors needed to form blood clots?

Platelets

97
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What is the chief function of the lymphatic system?

Capturing lymph fluid and returning it to the bloodstream

98
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Which branch of the nervous system engages the 'fight-or-flight' response during a crisis?

Sympathetic nervous system

99
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Which organ produces bile, detoxifies harmful substances, stores sugar, and assists in producing blood products?

Liver

100
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Which skin layer is rich with blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, and hair follicles?

Dermis