oncology overview semester 2 (ALL TESTS)

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211 Terms

1
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in which anatomical location are metastatic bone lesions the most common

spine

2
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which pediatric cancer is described as a primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) of the kidney

Wilm's Tumor

3
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in which anatomical location are soft tissue sarcomas most common

lower extremity

4
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the majority of retinoblastoma cases are a result of heredity

false

5
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what is the most important prognostic factor for osteosarcoma

presence/absence of metastatic disease

6
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what is the primary bone cancer with the highest incidence in adults

chondrosarcoma

7
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what is the most common site of metastasis from a primary bone cancer

lung

8
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most soft tissue sarcomas spread by way of

direct invasion and extension, hematogenous pathways

9
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the most common presenting symptom of primary bone tumors is

pain

10
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when treating an extremity for STS, it is essential to have a strip of tissue left out of the field near the treatment volume for which of the following reasons

maintain lymphatic flow/function, avoid circumferential fibrosis

11
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when used with radiation therapy, what surgical techniques reduce the loss of anatomic function and improve overall control

limb-sparing surgery

12
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osteoclasts function in bone

reabsorption

13
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T/F giant cell tumors are a primary bone tumor

true

14
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T/F rhabdomyosarcoma are primary bone tumors

false

15
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T/F osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor

true

16
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T/F ewing sarcoma is a primary bone tumor

true

17
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which of the following is associated with the highest incidence of bone tumors

metastatic bone lesions

18
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the most common type of leukemia diagnosed in children is

ALL

19
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chondro

cartilage

20
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leiomyo

smooth muscle

21
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lipo

adipose tissue

22
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angio

blood vessel

23
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rhabdomyo

striated muscle

24
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the main shaft of a typical long bone is termed

diaphysis

25
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what is the most common primary cancer that leads to bone mets

lung

26
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the craniospinal treatment technique is used to treat cancers with a risk of ______ seeding through which pathway

CSF

27
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most radiosensitive bone tumor

ewing sarcoma

28
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the most common symptom associated with STS is

palpable mass

29
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the inferior border of the spinal field in the craniospinal treatment technique extends to approximately

S2

30
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STS arising in the retroperitoneum have a _ prognosis than those arising in extremities

worse

31
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the diagnostic imaging study of choice for STS detection and diagnosis is

MRI

32
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bone and joint pain are symptoms most typically associated with

ALL

33
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T/F analgesics are a systemic met bone treatment

true

34
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T/F surgeries are a systemic met bone treatment

false

35
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T/F chemotherapy is a systemic met bone treatment

true

36
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T/F radiopharmaceuticals are a systemic met bone treatment

true

37
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T/F radiation therapy is a systemic met bone treatment

false

38
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what radiopharmaceuticals are used to treat metastatic bone tumors; particularly when the patient presents with several metastatic bone tumors at the same time

samarium-153, radium-223, and strontium-89

39
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a primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) arising from immature cells in the posterior fossa of the cerebellum, most commonly occurring in children under the age of 10 years

medulloblastoma

40
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T/F high calcium levels in the blood is considered a symptom of multiple myeloma

true

41
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T/F renal failure is considered a symptom of multiple myeloma

true

42
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T/F anemia related fatigue is considered a symptom of multiple myeloma

true

43
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T/F bone damage or fracture is considered a symptom of multiple myeloma

true

44
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sunburst and codman triangle radiographic findings are associated with which primary bone tumor

osteosarcoma

45
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the scheduled shifting of field junctions or skin gaps to disperse setup uncertainties along the volume of the treated area best defines

feathering

46
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sarcoma is defined as a group of malignant tumors which arise form the _ cell lineage

mesoderm

47
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a primary bone tumor of non-osseous origin arising from plasma cells in adults is termed

multiple myeloma

48
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T/F genetic damage is a stochastic effect of irradiation

true

49
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T/F osteoporosis is a stochastic effect of irradiation

false

50
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T/F slipped capitofemoral epiphysis is a stochastic effect of irradiation

false

51
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T/F carcinogenesis is a stochastic effect of irradiation

true

52
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the most common primary, solid malignancy in childhood is

brain tumor

53
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childhood brain tumors are most commonly located infratentorial and are ____ grade

low

54
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total body irradiation used to help prepare the body to receive a bone marrow transplant commonly uses a lower dose rate in an attempt to spare

late responding tissues

55
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the primary treatment option for childhood leukemia is

chemotherapy

56
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the most common primary cancer in childhood is

leukemia

57
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which aggressive pediatric cancer arises from the sympathetic nervous system ganglia, commonly presenting in the abdomen, has an average age of incidence of 17 months

neuroblastoma

58
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support cells of the central nervous system are termed

glial cells

59
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T/F pre-operative radiation therapy for STS permit shrinkage of mass prior to surgery so that surgery may be less aggressive

true

60
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T/F pre-operative radiation therapy for STS afford the pathological evaluation of the entire disease speciment

false

61
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T/F pre-operative radiation therapy for STS have smaller treatment fields, leading to fewer possible side effects

true

62
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T/F pre-operative radiation therapy for STS allows the area of interest to not suffer from surgically induced hypoxia

true

63
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for non extensive unilateral disease, treatment involves chemotherapy local therapies whic hmay include

lasers, cryotherapy, or photocoagulation

64
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T/F decreased blood values is an acute side effect of TBI

true

65
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T/F mucositis is an acute side effect of TBI

true

66
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T/F fatigue is an acute side effect of TBI

true

67
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T/F nausea/vomiting are acute side effects of TBI

true

68
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T/F carcinogenesis is an acute side effect of TBI

false

69
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if sedation is necessary for craniospinal axis irradiation, a supine patient position would be used

true

70
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T/F germinomas are at risk of CSF seeding

true

71
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T/F pineoblastomas are at risk of CSF seeding

true

72
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T/F ependymoma are at risk of CSF seeding

true

73
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T/F medulloblastomas are at risk of CSF seeding

true

74
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irradiation of the brain in pediatric patients has the potential to cause a slight decline in intelligence quotient

true

75
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cell required to be present in a biopsy specimen to diagnose Hodgkin lymphoma

reed-sternberg

76
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dose for moist desquamation

40-60 Gy

77
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dose for non-functional sebaceous glands

30 Gy

78
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dose for necrosis

70Gy

79
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dose for erythema

16-30 Gy

80
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B symptoms associated with lymphoma: weight loss

true

81
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B symptoms associated with lymphoma: night sweats

true

82
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B symptoms associated with lymphoma: fever

true

83
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B symptoms associated with lymphoma: diarrhea

false

84
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the type of bone marrow transplant that involves collecting bone marrow from a matched donor

allogeneic

85
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the chemotherapy agent called doxorubicin is known to be toxic to the

heart

86
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what skin cancer treatment technique remove and examines the tumor one layer at a time

mohs surgery

87
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risk factor for non-hodgkin lymphoma: radiation exposure

true

88
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risk factor for non-hodgkin lymphoma: immunosuppression

true

89
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risk factor for non-hodgkin lymphoma: increased age

true

90
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risk factor for non-hodgkin lymphoma: male gender

true

91
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the form of leukemia arising most often in adults which is NOT associated with previous radiation exposure is

CLL

92
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most lymphomas have a T-cell lymphocyte origin

false

93
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blood cell functions to stop bleeding through clotting

thrombocytes

94
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normal range for thrombocyte count is

165000-415000 mm3

95
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food recommended for pelvic irradiation: milk and milk products

false

96
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food recommended for pelvic irradiation: fried foods

false

97
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food recommended for pelvic irradiation: white bread

true

98
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food recommended for pelvic irradiation: baked, broiled, or roasted meat

true

99
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food recommended for pelvic irradiation: peeled apples and bananas

true

100
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which form of lymphoma has a bi-modal peak of incidence with increased at 20-34 years of age and above 55 years of age

hodgkin lymphoma