Cranial Nerves III, IV & VI and Extra-Ocular Muscle Function

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering anatomy, function, clinical testing and common palsies of cranial nerves III, IV and VI, plus key principles of extra-ocular muscle actions and strabismus assessment.

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28 Terms

1
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Which three cranial nerves provide motor supply to the extra-ocular muscles and eyelids?

Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear) and VI (abducens).

2
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Besides motor fibres, what additional autonomic fibres travel with the oculomotor nerve (CN III)?

Parasympathetic fibres responsible for pupillary constriction.

3
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Where is the main oculomotor nucleus located within the midbrain?

Anterior to the periaqueductal grey matter at the level of the superior colliculus.

4
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What is the function of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus?

It is the origin of the parasympathetic fibres that run with CN III to control the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles.

5
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Into which two branches does CN III divide after entering the orbit?

A smaller superior branch and a larger inferior branch.

6
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Which structures are innervated by the superior branch of CN III?

Superior rectus, levator palpebrae superioris, and sympathetic fibres to superior tarsal and dilator pupillae muscles.

7
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Which structures are innervated by the inferior branch of CN III?

Medial rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and pre-ganglionic fibres to the ciliary ganglion for ciliary and sphincter pupillae muscles.

8
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What is unique about the trochlear nerve’s exit from the brainstem?

CN IV is the only cranial nerve to emerge from the posterior (dorsal) surface of the brainstem.

9
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Which single muscle is supplied by the trochlear nerve (CN IV)?

The superior oblique muscle.

10
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List the primary actions of the superior oblique muscle.

Depresses, abducts (laterally deviates) and intorts the eyeball.

11
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Where are the trochlear nuclei situated in relation to the midbrain?

Immediately anterior to the cerebral aqueduct at the level of the inferior colliculus.

12
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From which part of the brainstem does the abducens nerve (CN VI) emerge?

The dorsal pontomedullary junction.

13
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Which muscle does the abducens nerve innervate and what is its action?

The lateral rectus muscle, causing abduction of the eye.

14
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Give three common pathological causes of ptosis.

Oculomotor nerve palsy, Horner’s syndrome, and neuromuscular disorders such as myasthenia gravis.

15
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What pattern is traced when clinically testing eye movements?

An ‘H’ pattern through all axes of gaze.

16
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What is the primary action of the superior rectus muscle?

Elevation of the eyeball (with secondary adduction and medial rotation).

17
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What is the primary action of the inferior rectus muscle?

Depression of the eyeball (with secondary adduction and lateral rotation).

18
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What movement is produced by the medial rectus muscle?

Adduction of the eyeball.

19
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What movement is produced by the lateral rectus muscle?

Abduction of the eyeball.

20
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List the actions of the inferior oblique muscle.

Elevates, abducts and laterally (extorts) rotates the eyeball.

21
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How does a complete oculomotor nerve palsy typically present?

‘Down and out’ eye position, ptosis due to levator palpebrae weakness, and mydriasis from loss of parasympathetic input.

22
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What visual complaint and compensatory head posture are characteristic of trochlear nerve palsy?

Vertical (and torsional) diplopia when looking down; patients often tuck the chin and tilt the head to the opposite side.

23
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How does an abducens nerve palsy manifest clinically?

Convergent squint with horizontal diplopia, worsened when the patient attempts to gaze toward the affected side.

24
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Define strabismus.

A condition in which the two eyes fail to align properly when focusing on an object.

25
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What does a central, symmetrical corneal light reflex indicate during the light reflex test?

Normal ocular alignment (orthotropia).

26
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What is the purpose of the cover test in ocular examination?

To detect a manifest strabismus (heterotropia) by observing fixation shifts when one eye is occluded.

27
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During a cover test, a temporal (outward) shift of the uncovered eye indicates what type of tropia?

Exotropia.

28
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During a cover test, if the uncovered eye moves inferiorly when the other eye is covered, what type of deviation is present?

Hypertropia of the covered eye, requiring a downward shift in the uncovered eye.