SWT301-NHS-S1

Q. 1001: Which of the following is true?

A.Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
B. If you find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
C. The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was
D. The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

B

Q. 1002: If the pseudo code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

C

Q. 1003: In which order should tests be run?

A. The most important tests first
B. The most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
C. The easiest tests first (to give initial confidence)
D. The order they are thought of

A

Q. 1004: A program validates a numeric field as follows:

Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?

A. 9,10,11,22
B. 9,10,21,22
C. 10,11,21,22
D. 10,11,20,21

B

Q. 1005: What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

A. How well you know a particular technique
B. The objective of the test
C. How appropriate the technique is for testing the application
D. Whether there is a tool to support the technique

B

Q. 1006: Which is not true-The black box tester

A. Should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
B. Should be able to understand the source code.
C. Is highly motivated to find faults
D. Is creative to find the system s weaknesses

B

Q. 1007: A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.

A. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
B. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other modules
C. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing
D. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module may affect other modules

D

Q. 1008: Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?

A. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
B. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and fixed
C. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
D. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.

B

Q. 1009: Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

A. Number of detected defects, testing cost;
B. Number of residual defects in the test object.
C. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared
D. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

D

Q. 1010: Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?

(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified

A. (I) and (II) are correct
B. (I) through (IV) are correct
C. (III) through (V) are correct
D. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

B

Q. 1011: The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?

A. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
B. Software delivery is behind schedule
C. Threat to a patient s life
D. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

C

Q. 1012: A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:

Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time

Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape

Severity: High

Priority: Urgent

What important information did the engineer leave out?

A. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
B. Actual result
C. History of the report
D. Ideas for the test case improvement

A

Q. 1013: Test data planning essentially includes

A. Network
B. Operational Model
C. Boundary value analysis
D. Test Procedure Planning

D

Q. 1014: Functional testing is mostly

A. Validation techniques
B. Verification techniques
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

A

Q. 1015: Component integration testing can be done

A. Before Integration testing
B. After unit testing
C. After component testing
D. After system testing

C

Q. 1016: White Box Testing

A. Same as glass box testing
B. Same as clear box testing
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above.

A

Q. 1017: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:

A. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once
B. Identify all inputs and all outputs
C. Identify equivalence classes for each input
D. All of the above

A

Q. 1018: Static Analysis

A. Same as static testing
B. Done by the developers
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above

C

Q. 1019: In formal review, Rework: fixing defects found typically done by _

A. Moderator
B. Author
C. Reviewer
D. Recorder

B

Q. 1020: The _________may facilitate the testing of components or part of a system by simulation the environment in which the test object will run

A. Test Design tool
B. Test data preparation tool
C. Test execution tool
D. Test harness
E. None of the above

D

Q. 1021: Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations?

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1. Severe time pressure
2. Inadequate specification

A. Decision testing
B. Error guessing
C. Statement testing
D. Exploratory testing

D

Q. 1022: Which of the following is false?

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

B

Q. 1023: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Security testing

A

Q. 1024: Static analysis is best described as:

A. The analysis of batch programs.
B. The reviewing of test plans.
C. The analysis of program code.
D. The use of black box testing.

C

Q. 1025: Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

A. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
B. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
C. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

D

Q. 1026: A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

A. Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
B. Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
C. The precise differences in versions of software component source code.
D. Restricted access to the source code library.

B

Q. 1027: Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.

READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF

A. 3, 3.
B. 2, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 3, 2.

A

Q. 1028: Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?

A. Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B. Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C. Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.

D

Q. 1029: In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.

A. Water Fall Model
B. V-Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model

B

Q. 1030: Entry criteria should address questions such as:

I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.

II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?

III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.

IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use

A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.

A

Q. 1031: From the below given choices, which one is the Confidence testing

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A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing

C

Q. 1032: What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?

I. Technical risk
II. Business risk
III Project constraints
IV Product documentation

A. I and II are true. III and N are false
B. III is true, I, II, and IV are false
C. I, II, and IV are true; III is false
D. I, II, and III are true, IV is false

D

Q. 1033: The following code segment contains a potential "divide by 0" error.

J=50
K=1
while (N>=-10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N - 1
end loop

Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?

A. Boundary testing
B. Condition testing
C. Compilation of the source code
D. Source code inspection

D

Q. 1034: IEEE stands for:

A. Information Engineering Endeavoring to Excel
B. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
C. Institute of Education for E-commerce Entrepreneurs
D. Individual Excellence in Engineering Enterprises

B

Q. 1035: What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?

A. Early test analysis and design.
B. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives.
C. Testers will start to get involved as soon as coding is done.
D. A and B above.

D

Q. 1036: Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to 10g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra 10p for each additional 25g up to 100g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?

A. 8, 42, 82, 102
B. 4, 15, 65, 92, 159
C. 10, 50, 75, 100
D. 5, 20, 40, 60, 80

B

Q. 1037: Which of the following would structure-based test design techniques be most likely to be applied to?

1. Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands.
2. An invalid transition between two different arrears statuses.
3. The business process flow for mortgage approval.
4. Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.

A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3

C

Q. 1038: Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?

A. The metrics-based approach is more accurate than the expert-based approach.

B. The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expertbased approach relies on team wisdom.

C. The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-based approach, but not vice versa.

D. The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach.

B

Q. 1039: Which of these statements about functional testing is true?

A. Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code.

B. Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.

C. Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see what happens.

D. Inspection is a form of functional testing.

B

Q. 1040: How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?

A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test

B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed

C. Scope is dependant on the amount of regression testing already performed

D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change

A

Q. 1041: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?

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A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system

A

Q. 1042: What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process?

a. Analyze the test basis documents.
b. Define the expected results.
c. Create the test execution schedule.
d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions

A. d, a, c, b
B. a, d, b, c
C. a, b, c, d
D. a, b, d, c

B

Q. 1043: Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?

a. Scheduling test analysis and design.
b. Designing Test Conditions.
c. Monitoring test progress.
d. Identifying the objectives of testing.
e. Evaluating test tools.
f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

A. b, c and d
B. a, d and f
C. a, d and e
D. b, c and f

B

Q. 1044: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

C

Q. 1045: Which of the following statements describe why exploratory testing is a useful test design technique?

a. It can help derive test cases based on the internal structure of systems.
b. It is useful when there are limited specification documents available.
c. It is useful when there testing is constrained due to time pressures.
d. It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.

A. b and c
B. a and c
C. b and d
D. c and d

A

Q. 1046: Which of the following statements correctly describes the benefit of fault attacks?

A. They are more effective at finding faults than formal test design techniques
B. They are useful when there is limited experience in the test team
C. They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur
D. They are less structured than other experience-based techniques

C

Q. 1047: From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization?

1. Roll the tool out to the entire organization at the same time.
2. Start with a pilot project.
3. Adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool.
4. Provide training and coaching for new users.
5. Let each team decide their own standard ways of using the tool.
6. Monitor that costs do not exceed initial acquisition cost.
7. Gather lessons learned from all teams.

A. 1, 2, 3, 5.
B. 1, 4, 6, 7.
C. 2, 3, 4, 7.
D. 3, 4, 5, 6.

C

Q. 1048: A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:

A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect

C

Q. 1049: Testing throughout the project in a three-dimensional sense refers to the following dimensions:

A. Time, Resources, and Risk
B. Verification, Validation, and Defect Reporting
C. Time, Organizational, and Cultural
D. None of the above

C

Q. 1050: Consider the following decision table.

Given this decision table on Card Issue, what is the expected result for the following test cases?

Conditions

Rule 1

Rule 2

Rule 3

Rule 4

Indian Resident

F

T

T

T

Age between 18-55?

Don t Care

F

T

T

Married?

Don t Care

Don t Care

F

T

Actions

Issue Membership?

F

F

T

T

Offer 10% discount?

F

F

T

F

A.TC1: Piyush is a 32 year old married, residing in Mumbai India.

B.TC3: Yogindernath is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.

A. A-Issue membership, 10% discount, B-Issue membership, offer no discount. B
B. A-Don t Issue membership, B-Don t offer discount. C
C. A-Issue membership, No discount, B-Don t Issue membership.
D. Issue membership, No discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

C

Q. 1051: Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

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A. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object

B. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board

C. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management

D. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

A

Q. 1052: Why is successful test execution automation difficult?

A. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
B. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
C. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
D. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.

B

Q. 1053: Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?

A. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.

B. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project

C. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles

D. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

D

Q. 1054: For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively?

Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == "senior citizen") and ("travel month = January"))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class=="first")
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;

A. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
C. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
D. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4

A

Q. 1055: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

A. D, A, B, C.
B. A, B, C, D.
C. D, A, B.
D. A, B, C.

A

Q. 1056: Which of the following is not considered as a benefit of testing tools?

A. Ability to detect tiny changes that a human could not
B. Easy to implement and maintain
C. Test assets are more consistent
D. Ease of measurement of software quality

B

Q. 1057: Which of the following options is not related to static testing?

A. Test data preparation tools
B. Early defect detection
C. Scribe
D. Compilers

A

Q. 1058: Which of the following is not a part of Configuration Management?

A. Controlled library access
B. Record of changes to documentation over time
C. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
D. Identification of test versions

C

Q. 1059: Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process.

(i) Test Implementation and Execution
(ii) Test Closure activities
(iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
(iv) Test Planning and Control
(v) Test Analysis and Design

A. iv v iii ii i
B. v i iii ii iv
C. iv v i iii ii
D. v ii iii i iv

C

Q. 1060: One of the differences between the Modified Condition Decision Coverage and the Condition Coverage is:

A. The Condition Coverage ensures all paths through a module are executed whereas the Modified Condition Decision Coverage ensures each path in a decision can independently affect the outcome.

B. The Modified Condition Decision Coverage ensures all alternative paths are executed whereas the Condition Coverage ensure all main paths are executed.

C. The Condition Coverage ensures each condition takes all possible outcomes at lease once whereas the Modified Condition Decision Coverage requires both maximum and minimum values within each field.

D. The Modified Condition Decision Coverage relies on the tester s skill and past experience whereas the Condition Coverage relies on the way in which the system moves from one condition to another.

A