Multiple choice NREMT questions

Your patient is found unresponsive laying in bed. You decide to open the airway. What method should you use?

a) Jaw - Thrust maneuver

b) Suction before opening airway

c) Head tilt-Chin lift

d) Insert an OPA first before opening airway

c) Head tilt-Chin lift

Your adult patient needs assistance with ventilations. How many breathes will you deliver?

a) 10 breaths per minute

b) 1 breath every 5-6 seconds

c) 24 breaths per minute

d) 1 breath every 6-7 seconds

b) 1 breath every 5-6 seconds

Your patient requires suction. How long will you suction the patient for?

a) No more than 30 seconds

b) No more than 5 seconds

c) No more than 20 seconds

d) No more than 15 seconds

d) No more than 15 seconds

Your patient is a 65 year old male who complains of difficulty breathing. The patient is found in the tripod position in a shopping mall. His respiratory rate is 26, oxygen saturation comes back at 90%, he is able to speak but in 3-4 word sentences. You should...

a) Lay the patient flat first

b) Start oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 LPM

c) Start oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM

d) Start assisting his ventilations

c) Start oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM

You respond to a 44 year old female patient who is found sitting upright on the couch. She complains of shortness of breath on exertion. Her respiratory rate is 20, she is speaking in full sentences and her oxygen saturation comes back at 92%. You should...

a) Start a non-rebreather mask at 10-15 LPM

b) Assist her ventilations with a BVM

c) Insert a NPA first before considering oxygen

d) Start oxygen with nasal cannula at 4 LPM

d) Start oxygen with nasal cannula at 4 LPM

You respond to a 26 year old male found laying on the ground outside a bank. He's unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 and oxygen saturation of 85%. There is no emesis or blood present on scene. You should next...

A) Suction his airway first

b) Open the airway

c) Start BVM ventilations immediately

d) Provide oxygen with a non-rebreather mask

b) Open the airway

You respond to a 74 year old patient who complains of difficulty breathing, fatigue and nausea. You auscultate lung sounds and find rhonchi unilateral to her right lung. You suspect...

a) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

b) Asthma

c) Pneumonia

d) COPD

c) Pneumonia

What does asthma, anaphylaxis, and COPD have in common?

a) Wheezing

b) Rales

c) Absent Lung Sounds

d) Rhonchi

a) Wheezing

You respond to a structure fire and find one patient who complains of dizziness and shortness of breath. Which of the following would you expect on exam?

a) Absent Lung Sounds

b) Wheezing

c) Stridor

d) Vomiting

c) Stridor

What separates an allergic reaction from anaphylaxis?

a) The presence of hives

b) How many body systems are affected

c) The type of allergen

d) The age of the patient

b) How many body systems are affected

True or False: Chronic Bronchitis patients have a thin, barrel chest and excessive coughing.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

True or False: Chronic Bronchitis patients have problems with excessive damage at the alveoli level.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

Emphysema patients are typically underweight and have pursed lip breathing.

a) true

b) false

a) TRUE

Which statement below is TRUE about COPD patients?

a) Chronic bronchitis patients are called pink puffers.

b) Emphysema patients are typically thin with pursed lip breathing.

c) Emphysema patients have tight airways and excessive mucus.

d) COPD is similar to CHF because they both cause pulmonary edema.

b) Emphysema patients are typically thin with pursed lip breathing.

True or False: Pulmonary Embolism is a condition that only affects the very young and very old in society.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

Which patient is MOST at risk of a pulmonary embolism?

a) 76 year old female who just flew 3 hours.

b) 42 year old smoker with gout.

c) 60 year old male with cancer who currently smokes.

d) 30 year old female on birth control.

c) 60 year old male with cancer who currently smokes.

Blood that travels through the right side of the heart is...

a) Deoxygenated

b) Oxygenated

c) None of the above

a) Deoxygenated

After blood travels through the right ventricle it heads to the...

a) Left Atrium

b) Pulmonary Artery

c) Aorta

d) Pulmonary Vein

b) Pulmonary Artery

Once blood reaches the left ventricle it will be sent to the...

a) Pulmonary Vein

b) SVC and IVC

c) Aorta

d) Right Atrium

c) Aorta

Which of the following is FALSE about heart blood flow?

a) Oxygenated blood is present in the left atrium

b) Deoxygenated blood is present in the superior vena cava.

c) The aorta pumps blood to the rest of the body

d) The pulmonary artery connects into the larger aorta.

d) The pulmonary artery connects into the larger aorta.

You respond to a patient that has signs of CHF, what should you expect?

a) Green or yellow tinged sputum

b) Rales bilaterally

c) Diabetes history

d) Bradycardia

b) Rales bilaterally

You respond to a 72 year old male with excessive cough and shortness of breath. He is able to speak in 2-3 word sentences but is alert. You find pitting edema in his legs and rales bilaterally on lung assessment. You should...

a) Apply CPAP

b) Start oxygen via non-rebreather mask

c) Give him nitroglycerin immediately

d) Assist ventilations with a BVM

b) Start oxygen via non-rebreather mask

You respond to a 54 year old male with a history of diabetes and hypertension who complains of chest pain. He states that the pain stopped once he came inside and sat down. You suspect...

a) Stable Angina

b) Unstable Angina

c) Prinzmetal Angina due to risk factors

d) Hypoglycemia

a) Stable Angina

What is the PRIMARY reason for oxygen therapy in EMS?

a) Lower anxiety

b) Pain relief

c) Raise oxygen saturation

d) Chest Pain

c) Raise oxygen saturation

Which of the following is NOT a pulse point in the human body?

a) Temporal

b) Popliteal

c) Cranial

d) Radial

c) Cranial

You respond to a 48 year old female patient who is confused and weak. The patient has difficulty speaking and has positive unilateral weakness. You should...

a) Call a stroke alert

b) Check her blood glucose level

c) Give oxygen at 15 LPM

d) Give aspirin at 324mg

b) Check her blood glucose level

How many compressions do we provide with CPR?

a) At least 100/minute

b) 150/minute

c) 100-120/minute

d) Depends on rescuers available

c) 100-120/minute

What is the proper compression depth with CPR for adults?

a) 2-3 inches

b) 2-2.4 inches

c) 3 inches or more

d) 1-1.5 inches

b) 2-2.4 inches

When performing 2 rescuer CPR on an adult patient, what is the compression to ventilation ratio?

a) 15:2

b) 30:2

c) 15:1

d) None of the above

b) 30:2

When performing 2 rescuer CPR on a pediatric patient, what is the compression to ventilation ratio?

a) 30:2

b) 15:2

c) 15:1

d) None of the above

b) 15:2

What does Evan say is the MAJOR SIGN to watch out for in abdominal aortic aneurysm patients?

a) Unexplained hypertension

b) Unexplained hypotension

c) Bradycardia

d) Tachycardia

b) Unexplained hypotension

Which of the following is NOT part of Beck's Triad?

a) Bradycardia

b) Hypotension

c) JVD

d) Muffled heart sounds

a) Bradycardia

Can Commotio Cordis lead to sudden death?

a) Only in pediatrics

b) Yes

c) Only in athletes

d) No

b) Yes

You respond to a 34 year old male involved in a motor vehicle accident. He complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. He is breathing at a rate of 26 and has an oxygen saturation of 91%. He is alert. You should...

a) Apply a non-rebreather mask attached to oxygen

b) Start BVM ventilations

c) Give aspirin at 324mg

d) Lay him on a long back board

a) Apply a non-rebreather mask attached to oxygen

Which of the following is TRUE about Tension Pneumothorax?

a) Tension pneumothorax can only occur in an open pneumothorax

b) Chest pain is a late sign

c) All pneumothoraxes are under tension

d) The heart fails as a pump

d) The heart fails as a pump

Which of the following is TRUE about Retrograde Amnesia?

a) It will always include nausea and vomiting

b) No recall of events prior to the injury

c) No recall of name, place, or event

d) A major form concussion

b) No recall of events prior to the injury

What is the key finding in grade 3 concussions?

a) Headache

b) Nausea and Vomiting

c) Drowsiness

d) Loss of Consciousness

d) Loss of Consciousness

What is NOT a part of Cushing's Triad? (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Bradycardia

b) Tachycardia

c) Bradypnea

d) Hypertension

e) Tachypnea

f) Hypotension

b) Tachycardia

e) Tachypnea

f) Hypotension

Check ALL of the following that is under control of the sacrum.

a) Bicep Movement

b) Bowel

c) Leg Muscles

d) Bladder

e) Wrist Movement

f) Sexual Function

b) Bowel

d) Bladder

f) Sexual Function

Our spine is made up of how many vertebrae?

a) 22

b) 33

c) 34

d) 36

b) 33

TRUE or FALSE: There are 6 vertebrae that make up the lumbar spine.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

TRUE or FALSE: "Whiplash" would be best explained as an axial loading injury.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

A positive Babinski sign is an indication of...

a) Sickle cell disease

b) Neurological abnormality

c) Deep vein thrombosis

d) Pulmonary embolism

b) Neurological abnormality

Which of the following organs lie in the left upper quadrant? (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Liver

b) Spleen

c) Kidneys

d) Pancreas

e) Stomach

f) Sigmoid Colon

b) Spleen

d) Pancreas

e) Stomach

Which of the following organs lie in the right upper quadrant? (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Liver

b) Stomach

c) Gallbladder

d) Appendix

e) Colon

a) Liver

c) Gallbladder

TRUE or FALSE: Kehr's sign is right shoulder pain that presents when the spleen is bleeding internally.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

Which is the most SEVERE burn?

a) 1st degree burns

b) 2nd degree burns

c) 3rd degree burns

c) 3rd degree burns

TRUE or FALSE: 3rd degree burns cause severe pain.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

Which of the following is the most common burn?

a) Radiation

b) Thermal

c) Electrical

d) Chemical

b) Thermal

TRUE or FALSE: Using the "rule of palms" you measure your palm against the surface area burned on the patient, equal to 1%.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

Which is the KEY finding of heat exhaustion?

a) Headache

b) Near syncope or syncope

c) Cramps

d) General malaise

b) Near syncope or syncope

What body temperature typically is seen in heat stroke?

a) 103F or higher

b) 100F or higher

c) 107F or higher

d) 105F or higher

d) 105F or higher

TRUE or FALSE: Exertional Heat Stroke is typically found in the very old and very young.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

At what stage of hypothermia does confusion typically occur?

a) Mild

b) Moderate

c) Severe

d) Always

b) Moderate

Check the 3 stages of shock from the choices below:

a) Decompensated

b) Bradycardia

c) Compensated

d) Irreversible

e) Hypotension

f) Hypertension

a) Decompensated

c) Compensated

d) Irreversible

Which stage of shock typically shows delayed cap refill and hypotension?

a) Compensated

b) Decompensated

c) Irreversible

b) Decompensated

When the body first enters Stage 1 of shock you should expect...

a) Cold extremities

b) Bradycardia

c) Tachycardia

d) Hypotension

c) Tachycardia

TRUE or FALSE: Aldosterone and ADH both help the body lose sodium and water.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

b) FALSE

TRUE or FALSE: The sympathetic nervous system will cause pupil dilation.

a) TRUE

b) FALSE

a) TRUE

Pulmonary Embolism would be categorized under which type of shock?

a) Cardiogenic

b) Hypovolemic

c) Septic

d) Obstructive

d) Obstructive

From the list below, choose the sub-types of distributive shock. (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Anaphylactic

b) Cardiogenic

c) Septic

d) Respiratory

e) Hypotensive

f) Diabetic

g) Obstructive

h) Neurogenic

a) Anaphylactic

c) Septic

h) Neurogenic

Which type of seizure activity has the nickname "drop attacks"?

a) Absence

b) Atonic

c) Tonic-Clonic

d) Only seen in Epilepsy

b) Atonic

Which type of seizure has an "aura"?

a) Atonic

b) Absence

c) Tonic-Clonic

d) Petit Mal

c) Tonic-Clonic

During the "tonic" phase you would expect to see...

a) Hypotension

b) Flexed muscles and apnea

c) Rigidity

d) Increased respirations

b) Flexed muscles and apnea

Which of the following BEST describes the postictal phase?

a) The 3rd phase of a petit mal seizure

b) When the patient will not respond post-seizure

c) When the patient wakes up and is confused, at times combative

d) The first stage of a grand mal seizure

c) When the patient wakes up and is confused, at times combative

Which of the following is TRUE about diabetics?

a) Type 2 diabetics can never produce insulin

b) Type 2 diabetics are always of advanced age

c) Type 1 diabetics will always require insulin

d) Type 2 diabetics will never require insulin

c) Type 1 diabetics will always require insulin

In the TYPICAL diabetic patient at what blood glucose level would you start to see symptoms of hypoglycemia?

a) 74

b) 66

c) 58

d) 80

c) 58

Which of the following is TRUE about Kussmaul breathing?

a) It occurs during hypoglycemia

b) Slow shallow breathing pattern

c) It only occurs in Type 1 diabetics

d) Deep rapid breathing pattern

d) Deep rapid breathing pattern

Which of the following are risk factors of esophageal varices? (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Diverticulitis

b) Diabetes

c) Alcoholism

d) Hepatitis

e) Asthma

f) Chronic Liver Disease

c) Alcoholism

d) Hepatitis

f) Chronic Liver Disease

Which forms of hepatitis are spread by water and/or food? (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Hepatitis A

b) Hepatitis B

c) Hepatitis C

d) Hepatitis D

e) Hepatitis E

a) Hepatitis A

e) Hepatitis E

When appendicitis FIRST occurs where is the pain typically felt?

a) Right Upper Quadrant

b) Mid-line over the navel

c) Right Lower Quadrant

d) Mcburney's Point

b) Mid-line over the navel

What is the normal heart rate for a 5 year old child?

a) 76

b) 134

c) 112

d) 126

c) 112

What is the normal respiratory rate for an infant?

a) 42

b) 28

c) 70

d) 22

a) 42

Under the Glasgow Coma Scale, which presentation will give you 4 points on the motor exam?

a) Decorticate posturing

b) Withdrawing from pain

c) Obeys commands

d) Decerebrate posturing

b) Withdrawing from pain

Under the Glasgow Coma Scale, the patient localizes to painful stimuli, is confused but responds to your speech. What is the GCS?

a) 12

b) 11

c) 10

d) 13

a) 12

Under the Glasgow Coma Scale, what is 3 points on the verbal exam?

a) No response

b) Confused

c) Incomprehensible words

d) Inappropriate words

d) Inappropriate words

Under the mnemonic OPQRST, what does the "P" represent?

a) Palpation

b) Provokes

c) Pain Scale

d) Pressure

b) Provokes

Under the SAMPLE mnemonic, what does the "E" represent?

a) Emergency assessment

b) Eye exam

c) EKG

d) Events leading up to 911 call

d) Events leading up to 911 call

Under the mnemonic DCAP BTLS, what does the "T" stand for?

a) Tightness

b) Tension

c) Tenderness

d) Trauma

c) Tenderness

Which of the following is NOT a part of AEIOU-TIPS?

a) Alcohol

b) Endocrine

c) Tumor

d) Urine output

d) Urine output

Which of the following BEST describes the placenta?

a) Fetal to maternal organ

b) Thin walled sac that contains the fetus

c) Only present in twins

d) None of the above

a) Fetal to maternal organ

Which statement is TRUE about the terms "Para" and "Gravida"? (Check ALL that APPLY)

a) Gravida refers to the number of live births

b) Para refers to the number of live births

c) Para refers to the number of pregnancies

d) Gravida refers to the number of pregnancies

b) Para refers to the number of live births

d) Gravida refers to the number of pregnancies

Which of the following is TRUE about the stages of labor?

a) Stage 1 of labor ends with the onset of contractions

b) Stage 3 ends with a live birth

c) Stage 2 ends with a live birth

d) Stage 3 begins with placenta delivery

c) Stage 2 ends with a live birth

Which of the following is TRUE about delivery of a fetus?

a) Crowning means delivery can wait several minutes to hours

b) Cut the cord 8-10 inches away from the fetus

c) Crowning means that delivery is imminent

d) Breech deliveries should be performed by EMS

c) Crowning means that delivery is imminent

You have just delivered a fetus in the field. You assess the newborn and find the skin pink to the core but blue to the extremities, a heart rate of 120, minimal response or activity, with a strong cry. What is the APGAR score?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 5

d) 4

b) 7

Abruptio Placentae would be BEST described as...

a) The placenta is without blood

b) Placenta covering the cervix

c) Detachment of the placenta

d) The placenta is without nutrients

c) Detachment of the placenta

Placenta Previa would be BEST described as...

a) The placenta detaching early

b) The placenta covering the cervix

c) The placenta becoming hypoxic

d) The placenta lacking nutrients to support life

b) The placenta covering the cervix

Uterine rupture is MORE likely to occur when...

a) Birthing of twins

b) Previous pregnancies

c) First pregnancy

d) Previous C-sections

d) Previous C-sections

Which of the following is a risk factor for Ectopic Pregnancy?

a) Past pregnancies

b) Contraception devices

c) Urinary tract infection

d) Kidney stones

b) Contraception devices

A type 1 ambulance would be BEST described as...

a) Modern-styled van ambulance

b) Sprinter-styled ambulance

c) Has a chassis cab of a light duty pick up truck

d) Has a chassis cab of a heavy duty van

c) Has a chassis cab of a light duty pick up truck

Which of the following BEST describes the "fend-off" position?

a) Downhill and upwind

b) Uphill and upwind

c) Uphill and downwind

d) Downhill and downwind

b) Uphill and upwind

A typical "landing zone" is...

a) 120x120

b) 60x60

c) 80x80

d) 100x100

d) 100x100

Which of the following BEST describes mutual aid?

a) Agreement between EMS and fire departments

b) Agreement between EMS services to coordinate with one another

c) Agreement between law enforcement and EMS

d) Agreement between fixed wing and ambulance companies

b) Agreement between EMS services to coordinate with one another

What is the role of the logistics section of incident command?

a) Only available in unified command structures

b) Providing info about the current event

c) Works exclusively with law enforcement

d) Providing the resources necessary

d) Providing the resources necessary

Under SMART TAG triage, your patient appears pulseless and unable to breath, you would tag this patient...

a) Red

b) Yellow

c) Black

d) Green

c) Black

What color is the "walking wounded" under SMART TAG triage?

a) Black

b) Green

c) Yellow

d) Red

b) Green

You are in charge of triage at a MCI event. Your next patient is breathing at 26 respirations per minute with a palpable radial pulse, and you find equal grip strength present. You should..

a) Tag Red

b) Tag Green

c) Tag Black

d) Tag Yellow

d) Tag Yellow

What is the difference between primary and secondary triage?

a) Primary triage is done in the hot zone always

b) Secondary triage is done en route to the hospital

c) Secondary triage begins at the treatment area

d) None of the above

c) Secondary triage begins at the treatment area

What is TRUE of carcinogens?

a) They cause lack of oxygen to red blood cells

b) They cause cancer

c) They cause confusion

d) They cause hypotension

b) They cause cancer

Which of the following is an example of a nerve agent?

a) Asbestos

b) Snake Venom

c) Mercury

d) Tabun

d) Tabun