Homicide

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Last updated 10:20 AM on 8/3/26
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322 Terms

1
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What is murder?

The most serious form of homicide.

2
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What sentence must be imposed for murder?

A mandatory life sentence.

3
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Which statute provides for the mandatory life sentence for murder?

The Murder (Abolition of Death Penalty) Act 1965.

4
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How is murder defined at common law?

The unlawful killing of a reasonable person in being under the King’s peace with malice aforethought.

5
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What are the actus reus elements of murder?

An unlawful killing of a human being under the King’s peace.

6
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What is the mens rea of murder?

Malice aforethought, meaning an intention to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

7
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When is a killing lawful rather than murder?

Where it occurs in lawful warfare, in the lawful advancement of justice, or through reasonable and necessary self-defence.

8
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Can killing an enemy soldier in battle amount to murder?

No, where the killing is lawful under the rules of warfare.

9
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Can self-defence make an intentional killing lawful?

Yes, where the force used was necessary and reasonable.

10
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Why is murder a result offence?

The defendant’s conduct must cause the victim’s death.

11
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What test applies to factual causation in murder?

The “but for” test from R v White.

12
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What test applies to legal causation in murder?

The defendant’s conduct must be an operating and substantial cause that is more than minimal.

13
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Which case confirms that the defendant’s contribution to death must be more than minimal?

R v Hughes.

14
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Who qualifies as a human being for the actus reus of murder?

A person who has been born alive and is capable of independent life.

15
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What is the modern medical test for legal death?

Brain death.

16
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When does a child become capable of being murdered?

When fully expelled from the mother and born alive.

17
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Which case establishes that a child must be fully expelled and born alive?

R v Poulton.

18
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Can a foetus be the victim of murder?

No. A foetus is not a person in being.

19
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Which case confirms that a foetus cannot be murdered?

Attorney General’s Reference (No 3 of 1994).

20
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Must the umbilical cord be cut before a child is a person in being?

No.

21
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Which case confirms that the umbilical cord need not be cut?

R v Reeves.

22
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What does “under the King’s peace” mean in the definition of murder?

It refers to the criminal jurisdiction of England and Wales.

23
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Which case considered the meaning of “under the King’s peace”?

R v Adebolajo.

24
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What happened in R v Adebolajo?

The defendants killed Fusilier Lee Rigby in Woolwich while claiming to be fighting a war against the British army.

25
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Why was the victim in R v Adebolajo under the King’s peace?

The killing occurred within the jurisdiction of England and Wales rather than lawful warfare.

26
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What does express malice mean in murder?

Intention to kill.

27
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What does implied malice mean in murder?

Intention to cause grievous bodily harm.

28
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What does grievous bodily harm mean for murder?

Serious harm.

29
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Which case defines grievous bodily harm as serious harm?

Saunders.

30
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Is an intention to cause grievous bodily harm sufficient for murder?

Yes.

31
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Which case confirms that intention to cause grievous bodily harm is sufficient for murder?

R v Vickers.

32
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Does malice aforethought require hatred?

No.

33
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Does malice aforethought require premeditation?

No.

34
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Can the intention for murder be formed in the spur of the moment?

Yes.

35
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Is mercy killing a defence to murder?

No.

36
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Which case confirms that mercy killing is not a defence?

Inglis.

37
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What is direct intention for murder?

Death or grievous bodily harm is the defendant’s aim or purpose.

38
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Which case states that direct intention ordinarily carries its natural meaning of aim or purpose?

R v Moloney.

39
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When is oblique intention relevant to murder?

Where death or serious harm was not the defendant’s primary aim but arose as a virtually certain consequence.

40
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What is the Woollin test for oblique intention in murder?

The jury may find intention where death or grievous bodily harm was a virtual certainty and the defendant appreciated that fact.

41
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What is the objective limb of the Woollin test?

Death or grievous bodily harm must have been a virtual certainty.

42
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What is the subjective limb of the Woollin test?

The defendant must have appreciated that death or grievous bodily harm was a virtual certainty.

43
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Which case provides the modern test for oblique intention?

R v Woollin.

44
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Is foresight of virtual certainty identical to intention?

No. It is evidence from which the jury may find intention.

45
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Which case confirms that foresight of virtual certainty is evidence rather than a definition of intention?

R v Matthews and Alleyne.

46
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Is motive the same as intention?

No. Motive explains why the defendant acted, while intention concerns what they meant to do.

47
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Which case confirms that motive is distinct from intention?

Chandler v DPP.

48
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Can motive provide evidence of intention?

Yes.

49
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Which case confirms that motive may be evidence of intention?

R v Hill.

50
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What special defences can reduce murder to voluntary manslaughter?

Loss of control and diminished responsibility.

51
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What is the effect of a successful special defence to murder?

The conviction is reduced from murder to voluntary manslaughter.

52
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What is the effect of a successful loss-of-control defence?

Murder is reduced to voluntary manslaughter and the mandatory life sentence no longer applies.

53
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Which provision confirms that successful loss of control reduces murder to manslaughter?

Section 54(7) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

54
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Who bears the legal burden once loss of control is properly raised?

The prosecution must disprove it beyond reasonable doubt.

55
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Which provision places the burden of disproving loss of control on the prosecution?

Section 54(5) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

56
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Who decides whether loss of control should be left to the jury?

The judge.

57
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Which provision governs whether loss of control is left to the jury?

Section 54(6) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

58
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Which case is associated with the judge’s role in deciding whether loss of control goes to the jury?

R v Jewell.

59
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Must every element of loss of control be established?

Yes. Failure of any one element defeats the whole defence.

60
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Which case confirms that failure of one element defeats loss of control?

R v Clinton.

61
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What former defence did loss of control replace?

Provocation.

62
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Which statute replaced provocation with loss of control?

The Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

63
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What are the three elements of loss of control under section 54(1)?

A loss of self-control, caused by a qualifying trigger, where a person of the defendant’s age and sex with normal tolerance and self-restraint might have reacted similarly.

64
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What does loss of self-control require?

The defendant must have been unable to restrain themselves.

65
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Is mere anger sufficient for loss of control?

No.

66
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Which case distinguishes loss of self-control from mere anger following provocation?

R v Richens.

67
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Must loss of control be sudden?

No.

68
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Which provision confirms that loss of control need not be sudden?

Section 54(2) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

69
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Can delay between the trigger and killing defeat loss of control automatically?

No, although it may make genuine loss of control less likely.

70
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Which case illustrates that delayed reaction does not automatically exclude loss of control?

R v Ahluwalia.

71
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What happened in R v Ahluwalia?

An abused wife killed her husband after a delay.

72
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Who decides whether the defendant actually lost self-control?

The jury as a question of fact.

73
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Can medical evidence support a claim that the defendant lost self-control?

Yes.

74
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What must cause the defendant’s loss of control?

A qualifying trigger under section 55 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

75
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What are the three possible qualifying triggers?

Fear of serious violence, a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged in extremely grave circumstances, or a combination of both.

76
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What is the fear trigger under section 55(3)?

The defendant feared serious violence against themselves or another identified person.

77
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How does the fear trigger differ from self-defence?

It is a narrower and separate defence requiring fear of serious violence in extremely grave circumstances.

78
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Which case explains the distinction between the fear trigger and self-defence?

R v Dawes, Hatter and Bowyer.

79
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Can loss of control apply where self-defence fails because excessive force was used?

Yes, if the statutory elements of the fear trigger are satisfied.

80
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What happened in R v Martin (Anthony)?

A farmer shot burglars, killing one, and self-defence failed because his force was excessive.

81
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How was the fear trigger relevant in R v Martin (Anthony)?

The defendant’s fear of serious violence could support loss of control despite the unreasonable force used.

82
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What is the anger trigger under section 55(4)?

Things said or done that constituted extremely grave circumstances and caused a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

83
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What three requirements must be satisfied for the anger trigger?

There must be things said or done, extremely grave circumstances, and a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

84
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Is the justifiable sense of being seriously wronged assessed objectively?

Yes.

85
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Which case confirms the objective nature of the justifiable-wrong requirement?

R v Clinton.

86
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Can general stress or circumstances alone constitute the anger trigger?

No. There must be something actually said or done.

87
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Which case confirms that circumstances alone are insufficient for the anger trigger?

R v Acott.

88
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What does “justifiable” mean for the anger trigger?

The sense of serious wrong must accord with society’s norms and values.

89
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Must the triggering act occur in the defendant’s presence?

No. Being informed about the act may be sufficient.

90
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What is the combined trigger under section 55(5)?

A combination of fear of serious violence and a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

91
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What is the objective reaction test under section 54(1)(c)?

Whether a person of the defendant’s age and sex, with normal tolerance and self-restraint and in the defendant’s circumstances, might have reacted similarly.

92
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Who applies the normal-person test in loss-of-control cases?

The jury.

93
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What did DPP v Camplin establish about the objective test?

The gravity of the trigger is assessed in the defendant’s circumstances, but the standard of self-control remains objective.

94
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What happened in DPP v Camplin?

A teenage boy killed a man who had raped and taunted him.

95
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How is the gravity of the trigger assessed under loss of control?

In light of the defendant’s relevant circumstances and characteristics.

96
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How is the required level of self-control assessed?

By reference to a normal person of the defendant’s age and sex with ordinary tolerance and self-restraint.

97
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Can a defendant’s bad temper lower the normal standard of self-control?

No.

98
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Can voluntary intoxication lower the normal standard of self-control?

No.

99
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Can extreme sensitivity lower the normal standard of self-control?

No.

100
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Can PTSD lower the normal standard of tolerance and self-restraint?

No.