radiation safety

The two basic types of radiation are:

a. audible and visible

b. sub-light and faster than light

c. particulate and electromagnetic

d. energetic and prolific

c. particulate and electromagnetic

Wavelike radiation travels at:

a. just slightly below the speed of light as atmospheric conditions are not constant

b. at the speed of light without regard to pressure temperature or magnetic fields

c. in a wavelike motion allowing it to curve around

objects

d. at subsonic speeds nearly 3280.84 ft/s (1000 m/s)

b. at the speed of light without regard to pressure temperature or magnetic fields

Gamma rays travel in a wavelike motion at the speed of

light, which is:

a. 3280.84 ft/s (1000 m/s)

b. 186 000 miles/s (299 338 km/s)

c. 610 236.22 ft/s (186 000 m/s)

d. 1000 miles/s (1609.34 km/s)

b. 186 000 miles/s (299 338 km/s)

Matter can be turned into energy.

a. true

b. false

a. true

Alpha particles are much like a helium nucleus as they

have:

a. two protons and two neutrons

b. one proton and one neutron

C. two protons, two neutrons and two electrons

d. one proton, one electron and one neutron

a. two protons and two neutrons

Alpha particles have a/an:

a. positive charge

b. negative charge

neutral charge

d. alternating charge from positive to negative

a. positive charge

Beta particles have a/an:

a. positive charge

b. negative charge

c. neutral charge

d. alternating charge from positive to negative

b. negative charge

Beta particles have a mass:

a. equal to 1840 times that of an alpha particle

b. equal to that of an alpha particle

c. much greater than that of an alpha particle

d. much less than that of an alpha particle

d. much less than that of an alpha particle

In modern radiography the alpha and beta particles are

of little concern because:

a. they have very little mass and energy and thus are

not harmful

b. they travel at sub-light speeds and as such pass right

through us

c. they travel at sub-light speeds and as such are easily

contained or shielded

d. materials used in modern radiography do not emit

alpha or beta particles

C they travel at sub-light speeds and as such are easily

contained or shielded

Radio waves, microwaves and infrared waves are types of:

a. ionizing radiation

b. nonionizing radiation

C. visible light waves

d. non-visible light waves

b. nonionizing radiation

The neutron has an atomic mass of:

a. 1 AMU

b. 10 AMU

c. 1000 AMU

d. 1840 AMU

a. 1 AMU

The shorter the wavelength or higher the frequency, the

greater the penetration; as such:

a. primary beams have greater penetrability than

secondary beams

b. secondary beams have greater penetrability than

primary beams

c. scatter beams have greater penetrability than

secondary or primary beams

d. all beams have the same wavelength and are

essentially the same

a. primary beams have greater penetrability than

secondary beams

Elementary particles with a unit negative electrical

charge and a mass approximately equal to 1/1840 that of a proton are:

a. protons

b. neutrons

c. electrons

d. valence shells

c. electrons

The atomic weight of an atom is the combination of the total number of protons and neutrons held in the nucleus. This is also known as the:

a. proton number

b. neutron number

c. Z number

d. A number

d. A number

Gamma rays are affected by magnetic fields.

a. true

b. false

b. false

As a radioisotope decays, the elements return to a stablestate by undergoing several steps, once complete the material continues to produce radiation.

a. true

b. false

b. false

After 148 days, Ir-192 would have undergone how many half lives?

a. 4

b. 3

c. 2

d. 1

c. 2

Activation is the process of bombarding material with:

a. excess electrons

b. excess protons

c. excess neutrons

d. the combination of electrons and protons

c. excess neutrons

The total number of ______ identifies an element.

a. protons

b. neutrons

c. electrons

d. a combination of protons and neutrons

a. protons

Gamma radiation has a shorter wavelength than visible

light, therefore making it:

a. less penetrating

b. more penetrating

C. brighter

d. less stable

b. more penetrating

In the early years of radiography, what caused personnel to be overexposed?

a. poor equipment design

b. lack of understanding

c. a lack of and poor safety practices

d all the above

d all the above

In what year did Marie Curie discover radium?

a. the beginning of 1896

b. the end of 1897

c. the beginning of 1898

d. late in 1898

d. late in 1898

Who coined the term radioactivity?

a. Marie and Pierre Curie

b. Henri Becquerel

c. Ernest Rutherford

d. Wilhelm Röntgen

a. Marie and Pierre Curie

Historically, it has been proven that the predominant cause of overexposures is:

a. improper surveys

b. the source being left in an uncontrolled state

c. the source not being locked once retracted to the

shielded position

d all of the above

d all of the above

The responsibility to adhere to the regulations, license conditions and company policies falls to:

a. the radiographer

b. the assistant radiographer

c. the radiation safety officer

d. all radiation workers

a. the radiographer

Alpha particles were discovered by

a. Marie Curie

b. Pierre Curie

c. Ernest Rutherford

d. Henri Becquerel

c. Ernest Rutherford

Regulations from one state to the next are essentially the same for radioactive materials.

a. true

b. false

a. true

A radiographer has several avenues to seek guidance and counsel. 1he first person he or she can turn to is?

a. their state or federal jurisdiction's hotline

b. their programs radiation safety officer (RSO)

c. a senior technician

d. the NRC

b. their programs radiation safety officer (RSO)

The origins of industrial radiography can be attributed to

a. Henri Becquerel

b. Wilhelm Röntgen

C. Ernest Rutherford

d. Pierre Curie

b. Wilhelm Röntgen

Overexposures to personnel can result in:

a. cancer

b. genetic defects carried into further generations

c. death

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

All radiation exposures are equally serious and can result in death.

a. true

b. false

b. false

Ionizing radiation passes through the entire body; as such, damage can occur to the:

a. skin

b. internal organs

c. muscles

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Prompt effects of radiation exposure to acute doses include:

a. blood changes

b. nausea

c. fatigue

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Industrial radiography, being one of the most dangerous jobs in the world, has killed:

a. more than 100 radiographers in the United States

b. more than 10 radiographers in the world

c. only one radiographer is known to have died in the

world

d. only one member of the public is known to have

died in the world

c. only one radiographer is known to have died in the

world

ALARA means:

a. as little as reasonably achievable

b. as low as reasonably acceptable

c. as little as reasonably acquired

d. as low as reasonably achievable

d. as low as reasonably achievable

The maximum occupational dose for an adult radiographer is:

a. 5 rad per year

b. 5 rem per year

C. 5 Sv per year

d. 5 Gy per year

b. 5 rem per year

The maximum occupational dose for a minor is:

a. 10% that of an adult radiographer

b. 5 mSv

c. 0.5 rem

d. all the above

d. all the above

The alpha particle is:

a. as energetic and damaging as the beta particle

b. less energetic and less damaging than the gamma ray

c. more damaging than the gamma ray

d. less energetic than the beta particle

d. less energetic than the beta particle

The alpha particle has a quality factor of:

a. 1

b. 5

c. 10

d. 20

d. 20

Radiation can be detected by the human senses.

a. true

b. false

b. false

Which of the following detects, measures, or in some way records ionizing radiation?

a. thermoluminescent dosimeter

b. film badge

c. pocket ion chamber (dosimeter)

d. survey meter

e. rate alarm

f. all of the above

f. all of the above

Which of the two types of survey meters is considered most appropriate for industrial radiography?

a. geiger-müller tube

b. ion chamber

a. geiger-müller tube

The survey meter must be capable of measuring a range of:

a. 0 mR/h through 10 R/h (0 uSv/h through 100 mSv/h)

b. 2 mR/h through 1 R/h (20 uSv/h through 10 mSv/h)

c. 0 mR/h through 1 R/h (0 uSv/h through 10 mSw/h)

d. 2 mR/h through 10 R/h (20 uSv/h through 100 mSv/h)

b. 2 mR/h through 1 R/h (20 HSv/h through 10 mSv/h)

After a source has been returned to the shielded position a survey meter should show:

a. an increase in exposure rate followed by a decrease to zero

b. an increase in exposure rate followed by a decrease to about mid-range of scale assuming the meter is set on the proper scale

c. zero at 25 ft (7.62 m) away

d. zero and increase as the radiographer approaches the exposure device no matter what scale it's on

c. zero at 25 ft (7.62 m) away

A survey meter must be calibrated on each scale (1x, 10x, 100x, etc.) at two points: one-third and two-thirds scale. The accuracy of each reading must be within:

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 20%

d. 30%

c. 20%

A dosimeter measures:

a. dose rate

b. lifetime exposure

c. weekly exposure

d. dose received since the last time it was charged

d. dose received since the last time it was charged

A rate alarm meter or alarming rate meter must sound a continuous audible alarm greater than 80 dB at 1 ft (0.3 m) at:

a. 500 mR/h (5000 Sv/h)

b. 400 mR/h (4000 pSv/h)

c. 100 mR/h (1000 HSv/h)

d. 2 mR/h (20 4Sv/h)

a. 500 mR/h (5000 Sv/h)

Dosimeters and rate alarms must be calibrated every:

a. three months

b. six months

c. 12 months

d. prior to use

c. 12 months

Film badges and thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLDs) are considered dosimeters in the same manner as the pocket ion chamber. The main difference between a film badge or TLD and ion chamber is the:

a. film badge and TILD must be developed

b. ion chamber needs batteries zero

c. ion chamber is a direct reading instrument and the TLD/film badges must be processed by a National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program (NVLAP) lab

d. TLD needs to be processed before being sent to a lab

c. ion chamber is a direct reading instrument and the

TLD/film badges must be processed by a National

Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program

(NVLAP) lab

Sources must be leak tested every:

a. one month

b. two months

c. three months

d. six months

d. six months

Exposure devices using depleted uranium (DU) must be leak tested every:

a. 12 months

b. two years

c. three years

d. six years

a. 12 months

A leak test would be considered failed should the sample tested return a value greater than:

a. 0.005 Ci (185 000 000 Bq)

b. 0.005 mCi (185 000 Bq)

c. 0.005 uCi (185 Bq)

d. 0.005 nCi (0.185 Bq)

c. 0.005 uCi (185 Bq)

Should a source or exposure device return a wipe resulting in more than 0.005 uCi (185 Bq) the licensee must do what?

a. immediately call the NRC for disposal

b. immediately remove it from service and have it decontaminated or disposed of

c. immediately dispose of it, typically by burial

d. immediately notify the NRC and dispose of it at a waste site

b. immediately remove it from service and have it

decontaminated or disposed of

Gamma alarms (audible and visible), also known as area alarms, must be tested every:

a. day prior to use

b. 8h and quarterly

c. day

d. three months

a. day prior to use

There are basically three methods of protection from ionizing radiation. What are they?

a. time, distance, collimators

b. distance, time, lead aprons

c. shielding, time, distance

d. dense atomic structures, time and distance

c. shielding, time, distance

To determine the total dose received:

a. multiply the rate of dose by the total time exposed

b. multiply the exposure time by the exposure rate

c. multiply the survey meter's reading by the total exposure time

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

At a dose rate of 60 mR/h (600 uSv/h), 1 h of exposure would be?

a. 60 mR/h (600 uSv/h)

b. 6 mR (60 HSv)

c. 1 mR (10 HSv)

d. 60 mR (600 uSv)

d. 60 mR (600 uSv)

The specific gamma ray constant for Co-60 can be expressed as:

a. 14 R/Ci (140 mSv/Ci)

b. 14 R/h (140 mSv/h)

c. 14 R/ft (140 mSv/ft)

d. 14 R/Ci at 1 ft (140 mSv/Ci at 1 ft)

d. 14 R/Ci at 1 ft (140 mSv/Ci at 1 ft)

A specific gamma ray constant can be stated as:

a. dose rate per curie at a specific distance

b. curies per foot

C. activity per curie per yard

d. curies per meter

a. dose rate per curie at a specific distance

The inverse square law is written as:

a. the intensity is directly proportional to the distance squared

b. the intensity is indirectly proportional to the distance squared

c. the intensity is directly proportional to the square of the distance

d. the intensity is indirectly proportional to the distance

b. the intensity is indirectly proportional to the distance

squared

Mathematically, the inverse square law is written as:

a. I1 x I2 = D1 x D2

b. I1/I2 = D1/D2

c. I1/I2 = D1^2/D2^2

d. I1 x I2 = D2^2 x D1^2

c. I1/I2 = D1^2/D2^2

The inverse square law can be broken down to solve for intensity as:

a. I2 = (I1 x D1^2)/D2^2

b. I1 = (I2 x D1^2)/D2^2

c. D2 = (I1 x D1^2)/D2^2

d. D1 = (I1 x D1^2)/D2^2

a. I2 = (I1 x D1^2)/D2^2

The inverse square law can be broken down to solve for distance as:

a. I2 = (I1 x D1^2)/D2^2

b. I1 = (I2 x D1^2)/D2^2

c. D2 = sqroot((I1 x D1^2)/I2)

d. D = (I1 x D1^2)/D2^2

c. D2 = sqroot((I1 x D1^2)/I2)

Shielding can be expressed by the amount of shielding provided, so that the amount of shielding that would reduce the original exposure rate to one-half would be stated as:

a. 1 half-value layer

b. 1 tenth-value layer

c. 1 layer

d. 10 layers

a. 1 half-value layer

The best material to use as shielding would be:

a. paper

b. plastic

wood

d. lead

d. lead

When using lead to shield an Ir-192 source, you would need ___ to reduce the original exposure to one-half.

a. 0.2 in. (5.08 mm)

b. 0.25 in. (6.35 mm)

c. 0.3 in. (7.62 mm)

d. 0.5 in. (12.7 mm)

a. 0.2 in. (5.08 mm)

Standing in a 100 mR/h (1000 (Sv/h) field, the radiographer will make four 10 min exposures. The radiographer's total exposure for the day would be:

a. 25 mR (250 uSv)

b. 66.7 mR (667 uSv)

c. 66.7 mR/h (677 HSv/h)

d. 400 mR (4000 uSv)

b. 66.7 mR (667 uSv)

With 30 Ci of iridium with a gamma constant of 5.2 R/h/Ci at 1 ft (52 mSv/h/Ci at 0.3 m), what would your exposure rate be at 1 ft (0.3 m) from the source?

a. 156 mR/h (1560 uSv/h)

b. 156 R/h (1560 mSv/h)

c. 156 R (1560 mSv)

d. 156 mR (1560 uSv)

b. 156 R/h (1560 mSv/h)

If you have 73 Ci of Co-60, your exposure rate at 2 ft (0.6 m) from the source would be?

a. 511 R (5110 mSv)

b. 264.6 R (2646 mSv)

c. 262.8 R (2628 mSv)

d. 255.5 R (2555 mSv)

d. 255.5 R (2555 mSv)

You have an intensity of 50 mR/h at 100 ft (50 pSv/h at 30.48 m) from a source. Moving to 50 ft (15.24 m) would increase your exposure rate by a factor of what?

a. 2 times

b. 3 times

c. 5 times

d. 4 times

d. 4 times

If the radiographer has 100 mR/h at 25 ft (1000 Sv at 7.63 m), the exposure rate at 50 ft (15.24 m) would be with 1 half-value of shielding between the

radiographer and the source.

a. 25 mR/h (250 uSv/h)

b. 12.5 mR/h (125 uSv/h)

c. 25 mR (250 uSv)

d. 12.5 mR (125 uSv)

b. 12.5 mR/h (125 uSv/h)

There are ___ type(s) of installations used in radiography.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

d. 4

The most common type of installation used in field radiography is:

a. open

b. protective

c. enclosed

d. unattended

a. open

How many survey meters are required when conducting radiographic operations?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. one for each radiographer and assistant

e. a sufficient number of calibrated and operable survey

e. a sufficient number of calibrated and operable survey

Radiation survey equipment shall be calibrated ______, and have an overall accuracy of _____.

a. annually; 10%

b. semiannually; +/- 10%

c. annually; +/- 20%

d. semiannually; 20%

e. Semiannually; +/- 20%

e. Semiannually; +/- 20%

Which personnel monitoring devices are required prior to performing radiography, excluding permanent installations?

a. direct reading dosimeter, operating rate alarm, personnel dosimeter

b. direct reading dosimeter, film badge, survey meter, operating rate alarm

c. operating rate alarm, survey meter, dosimeter, film badge/TLD

d. survey meter, dosimeter, film badge

a. direct reading dosimeter, operating rate alarm, personnel dosimeter

What are the three classifications of exposure devices?

a. H-heavy; L - light; B - bolted

b. P-portable; M-mobile; F-fixed

C. P-plunger; M- mechanized; F- flap

d. H-heat treated; L- liquid, B -beryllium

b. P-portable; M-mobile; F-fixed

Exposure devices are classified by categories I and II per the ANSIstandardN432.What are these categories?

a. Category I: exposes the source through a shutter mechanism or rotation device in which the source never leaves the device; CategoryII: source is exposed outside the shielded container by mechanical means

b. Category I: exposes the source through a shutter mechanism or rotation device in which the source leaves the device; CategoryII: source is exposed outside the shielded container by mechanical means

c. Category I: source is exposed outside the shielded container by mechanical means; CategoryII: exposes the source through shutter mechanism or rotation device in which the source never leaves the device.

d. Category II: source is exposed outside the shielded container by mechanical means; CategoryI: exposes the source through a shutter mechanism or rotation device in which the source leaves the device

a. Category I: exposes the source through a shutter mechanism or rotation device in which the source never leaves the device; Category II: source is exposed outside the shielded container by mechanical means

Caution signs used, unless otherwise authorized by the commission, shall be of a trefoil design using the colors:

a. magenta on a yellow background

b. purple on a yellow background

C. black on a yellow background

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Boundary and posting requirements are as follows:

a. caution radiation area 2 mR/h (20 uSv/h); caution/danger high radiation area 100 mR/h (1 mSv/h); grave danger, very high radiation area

500 mR/h (5 mSv/h)

b. caution radiation area 5 mR/h (50 uSv/h); caution/danger high radiation area 100 mR/h (1 mSv/h); grave danger, very high radiation area

500 R/h (5 Sv/h)

c. caution radiation area 2 mR/h (20 uSv/h); caution/danger high radiation area 500 mR/h (5 mSv/h); grave danger, very high radiation area 1 R/h (10 mSv/h)

d. caution radiation area 5 mR/h (50 uSv/h); caution/danger high radiation area 500 mR/h (5 mSv/h); grave danger, very high radiation area 1 R/h (10 mSv/h)

b. caution radiation area 5 mR/h (50 uSv/h); caution/danger high radiation area 100 mR/h (1 mSv/h); grave danger, very high radiation area 500 R/h (5 Sv/h)

Film badges must be replaced at intervals not to exceed:

a. one month

b. three months

c. six months

d. 12 months

a. one month

In the event of an off-scale pocket chamber, an individual's film badge/TILD must be submitted for processing within:

a. 24 h

b. 48 h

c. 72 h

d. at the end of the month

a. 24 h

Dosimetry reports received from the accredited NVLAP personnel dosimeter processor must be maintained by the licensee:

a. for one year

b. for three years

c. for the duration of the employee's employment

d. until the commission terminates the license

d. until the commission terminates the license

The symbol R means:

a. rem

b. rad

c. roentgen

d. radiation

c. roentgen

The acronym rad means:

a. radiation absorbed dose

b. roentgen absorbed dose

c. roentgen acquired dose

d. radiation at death

a. radiation absorbed dose

The roentgen (R) exposure is measured in:

a. tissue

b. water

c. lab

d. air

d. air

The symbol mR means:

a. milliroentgen

b. microroentgen

c. megaroentgen

d. millirem

a. milliroentgen

One roentgen or 1 R is equal to:

a. 100 milliroentgen

b. 1000 milliroentgen

c. 0.001 milliroentgen

d. 1 milliroentgen

b. 1000 milliroentgen

The acronym rem stands for:

a. radiation equivalent man

b. radiation effect man

c. roentgen effect man

d. roentgen equivalent man

d. roentgen equivalent man

The initialism QF stands for:

a. quantity factor

b. quality frequency

c. quality factor

d. quality effective factor

c. quality factor

The quality factor for X-rays and gamma rays is:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 10

d. 20

a. 1

The quality factor for alpha (ray) particles is:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 10

d. 20

d. 20

Activity of radioactive material is measured in:

a. curies

b. roentgens

c. sieverts

d. grays

a. curies

Becquerels and curies are units of measurement of

a. physical size of the source

b. gray per hour

c. decay rate

d. roentgen per hour

c. decay rate

Atoms that have excess energy and are unstable are

known as:

a. radioactive

b. radioactivity

C. balanced

d. weighted

a. radioactive

Elementary particle units with a negative electrical charge and a mass approximately equal to 1/1840 that of a proton are:

a. electrons

b. protons

C. neutrons

d. valence shells

a. electrons

Positively charged elementary particles with a mass approximately equal to 1840 times that of an electron, or 1 AMU, are known as:

a. electrons

b. protons

C. neutrons

d. valence shells

b. protons

Unchanged elementary particles with a mass nearly equal to that of a proton are called:

a. electrons

b. protons

c. neutrons

d. valence shells

c. neutrons

The area known as the center of an atom is called the:

a. electron

b. nucleus

c. proton

d. neutron

b. nucleus

Any byproduct material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material is a:

a. drum

b. pig

c. sealed source

d. container

c. sealed source