BAIM final exam

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119 Terms

1
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What key aspects should you assess for any upper‑limb injury?

Mechanism, presentation (signs & symptoms), care/management, and prevention strategies.

2
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Which three bones form the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint?

Clavicle, scapula, and humerus.

3
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What class of synovial joint are the hip and shoulder?

Ball‑and‑socket joints.

4
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What class of synovial joint are the elbow, knee, and ankle?

Hinge joints.

5
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What is the shoulder capsule?

A strong connective‑tissue sleeve that encloses and stabilizes the joint.

6
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What is the glenoid labrum?

A fibrocartilage ring attached to the rim of the scapula’s glenoid cavity.

7
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What is shoulder impingement syndrome?

Overuse‑related tendon inflammation that becomes pinched in the subacromial space; treated with RICE.

8
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Where is the subscapularis muscle located?

On the anterior side of the scapula/shoulder.

9
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Where is the supraspinatus muscle located?

On the posterior superior scapula.

10
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Name the four rotator‑cuff (SITS) muscles.

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis.

11
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What primary motion does the supraspinatus produce?

Arm abduction.

12
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Which major nerves serve the shoulder region?

Radial, ulnar, median, and axillary nerves.

13
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Summarize a typical clavicle fracture.

Mechanism – direct impact/FOOSH; S&S – pain, deformity, crepitus; Management – splint and refer; Prevention – minimize high‑impact contact; Healing ≈ 6‑8 weeks.

14
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Give common mechanisms for anterior shoulder dislocation.

Falling on an outstretched arm or posterior blow forcing the humeral head forward.

15
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What causes an acromioclavicular (AC) sprain?

Direct blow to the shoulder tip or FOOSH; piano‑key test confirms.

16
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What criteria allow return to play after an AC sprain?

Minimal pain, full ROM, and full strength.

17
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Describe a sternoclavicular (SC) sprain emergency.

Posterior displacement after direct blow/FOOSH; do not move—activate EMS.

18
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List common mechanisms of shoulder muscle strain.

Overuse, poor mechanics, and weak shoulder musculature.

19
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What are hallmark signs of a shoulder muscle strain?

Bilateral weakness, point tenderness; managed with rest, rehab, or surgery if severe.

20
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State two leading mechanisms for pectoral strain.

Weak/inflexible chest musculature and side‑arm throwing.

21
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Define a fracture.

Any crack or break in bone, often from direct blow or stress; pain may worsen with laughing, coughing, or breathing.

22
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What are general S&S and care for fractures?

Swelling and point tenderness; splint and refer for imaging.

23
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What characterizes a burner/stinger nerve injury?

Burning or tingling down one arm after head/neck impact; usually resolves in 10–15 min before return.

24
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Describe forearm position in supination.

Radius and ulna are parallel with palms facing up.

25
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Name the three bones forming the elbow joint.

Humerus, radius, and ulna.

26
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Which ligament stabilizes the elbow medially?

Medial (ulnar) collateral ligament (MCL).

27
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Which ligament stabilizes the elbow laterally?

Lateral (radial) collateral ligament (LCL).

28
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Which elbow ligament secures the radial head against the ulna?

Annular ligament.

29
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Define an agonist muscle.

The muscle that contracts to produce the prime movement.

30
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Define an antagonist muscle.

The muscle that opposes and controls the motion of the agonist.

31
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Wrist flexors originate on which epicondyle?

Medial epicondyle of the humerus.

32
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Wrist extensors originate on which epicondyle?

Lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

33
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Which arm arteries/nerves are commonly used for pulse checks?

Brachial (median), radial, and ulnar.

34
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Name sports associated with chronic shoulder injuries.

Swimming, volleyball, and baseball.

35
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Which sport has the highest incidence of upper‑arm injuries?

Baseball.

36
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Summarize elbow dislocation management.

Caused by FOOSH or direct blow; obvious deformity; must be reduced by medical professional.

37
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Outline elbow fracture basics.

MOI—direct blow/FOOSH; S&S—pain, swelling; splint, check distal pulse, refer.

38
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Describe olecranon bursitis care.

Compress, possible aspiration and steroid, or surgical removal if chronic.

39
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What general injury risk exists with elbow sprains?

UCL sprain or avulsion fracture from valgus stress.

40
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What is medial epicondylitis commonly called?

Pitcher’s, golfer’s, or Little Leaguer’s elbow.

41
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What is lateral epicondylitis commonly called?

Tennis elbow.

42
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Which carpal bone is most frequently fractured?

Scaphoid.

43
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Which digits are innervated primarily by the radial nerve?

Thumb and index finger (1st & 2nd metacarpals).

44
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Which digit is mainly innervated by the median nerve?

Middle finger (3rd metacarpal).

45
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Which digits are mainly innervated by the ulnar nerve?

Ring and little fingers (4th & 5th metacarpals).

46
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Where is the anatomical snuffbox and its significance?

Dorsal‑radial wrist depression housing the scaphoid.

47
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Describe a typical forearm (Colles) fracture.

FOOSH produces “silver‑fork” deformity at distal radius; splint and refer.

48
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What is a boxer’s fracture?

Fracture of 2nd or 3rd metacarpal neck; heals in about 6–8 weeks.

49
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Why do many wrist fractures require surgery?

Avascular necrosis risk and poor blood supply, leading to tissue death.

50
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What mechanism commonly causes finger fractures?

Traumatic impact to distal, middle, or proximal phalanx.

51
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What is a common treatment for finger tendon avulsion (“mallet”)?

Splint 3–4 weeks until tendon scars; gloves help prevent.

52
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How do you manage a sprained ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb?

Splint to immobilize; brace for prevention.

53
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What is the usual cause of finger dislocations?

Axial load from ball impact; refer for reduction if non‑clinician.

54
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Which bone is the body’s longest and strongest?

Femur.

55
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Outline basics of a femoral shaft fracture.

Often from high‑energy trauma; internal bleeding possible; surgical rod fixation; NWB ≈ 12 weeks.

56
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Who is predisposed to femoral stress fractures?

Female athletes, gymnasts, and linemen; rest 4–6 weeks.

57
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What is the most common direction for hip dislocation?

Posterior; limb‑threatening due to vascular compromise.

58
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Define a hip pointer.

Iliac crest contusion causing bone bruise; heals in 2–3 weeks; padding prevents.

59
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Summarize hamstring strain grading.

Grades 0–3; overstretch or forceful contraction; time loss up to 12 weeks.

60
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Describe a typical groin (adductor) strain.

Excessive abduction with “pop”; butterfly stretch rehab; 8–12 weeks.

61
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Give key care points for quadriceps strain.

Ice ASAP, gentle stretch after 24–48 h; good warm‑up prevents.

62
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What causes thigh contusions?

Direct blow without pads; RICE on stretch; ~13–21 days out.

63
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What is myositis ossificans?

Bone growth inside muscle after severe contusion.

64
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Describe quadriceps compartment syndrome signs.

Shiny, taut, hot skin with severe pain and NWB.

65
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What is iliotibial band syndrome?

Lateral knee pain in distance runners from overuse on uneven surfaces.

66
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Define a sports hernia.

Core muscle tear from heavy lifting; may need surgical repair; long recovery.

67
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List the four bones forming the knee joint complex.

Femur, tibia, fibula, and patella.

68
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Name the four primary knee ligaments.

ACL, PCL, MCL, and LCL.

69
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What valgus test finding suggests an MCL sprain?

Knock‑knee (medial collapse) under valgus stress.

70
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What varus test finding suggests an LCL sprain?

Bow‑legged (lateral opening) under varus stress.

71
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Outline fractured patella presentation.

Direct blow; straight‑leg raise painful; palpable defect; immobilize.

72
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How is a dislocated patella typically reduced?

Gentle knee extension realigns; return when pain‑free with rehab.

73
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Why are MCL sprains common and how managed?

Valgus force; pain medial line; brace 3–6 weeks; braces help prevent.

74
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Describe classic ACL sprain features.

Non‑contact pivot with “pop”; femur‑to‑tibia shear; higher risk in female soccer.

75
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What three structures compose the “unhappy triad”?

ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus.

76
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What tissues may be used for ACL reconstruction?

Patellar, hamstring, quadriceps tendon autograft, or allograft.

77
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What mechanism often causes a PCL sprain?

“Dashboard” posterior force on tibia; usually non‑surgical.

78
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Why are isolated LCL sprains rare?

Often occur with other ligament or capsule injuries; heal 3–6 weeks.

79
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State key facts about meniscus tears.

Avascular cartilage shock‑absorber; locking/catching; crutches 3–6 weeks post‑surgery, full return 3–6 months.

80
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What is patellar tendinitis commonly called?

Jumper’s knee; chronic patellar tendon inflammation.

81
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Define turf toe.

Great‑toe hyperextension sprain of plantar plate/extensors.

82
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What is plantar fasciitis?

Inflammation of plantar fascia causing first‑step morning pain; better footwear helps.

83
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What mechanism causes most lateral ankle sprains?

Inversion with plantar‑flexion; braces/taping prevent.

84
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What is another term for a high‑ankle sprain?

Syndesmosis sprain.

85
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How do you manage ankle/lower‑leg fracture–luxation?

Check vascular status, splint, EMS activation.

86
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Explain stress fractures in runners.

Chronic overload causing point tenderness; rest 2–4 weeks.

87
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Why is “shin splints” a vague diagnosis?

It covers multiple lower‑leg overuse pains often linked to footwear or arch issues.

88
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What are red‑flag signs of compartment syndrome?

Severe tight pain, shiny skin, and foot drop; surgical fasciotomy may be required.

89
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Describe Achilles tendinitis presentation.

Posterior heel pain from overuse; feels like being “kicked”; stretching helps.

90
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What does PRICE stand for in acute care?

Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.

91
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Why is maintaining ROM important in rehab?

Prevents stiffness; achieved through stretching and active ROM exercises.

92
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Define proprioception.

Body’s sense of position and movement in space.

93
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How do you manage facial lacerations > ½‑inch long?

Control bleeding, clean, and suture within golden period.

94
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What simple field test screens for mandible fracture?

Bite test—pain or mal‑occlusion suggests fracture.

95
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List key steps for controlling a persistent nosebleed.

Pinch nostrils 20 min, head forward, insert cotton; avoid blowing nose.

96
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What rapid neuro‑optic check acronym is used for head/face injuries?

H.I.T.—History, Inspection, Touch.

97
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What does PEARL stand for in eye assessment?

Pupils Equal And Reactive to Light.

98
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Give three do‑nots for eye injuries.

Do not rub eye, remove embedded object, or remove contacts if injured.

99
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What is cauliflower ear and how prevented?

Auricular hematoma in wrestlers; prevented with headgear.

100
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Differentiate acute vs. chronic injuries.

Acute—sudden single event; Chronic—overuse cumulative stress.