FINAL MARKETING MANAGEMENT

B) Many companies do not handle pricing well and fall back on familiar methods that aren't as effective as they should be.

Which of these is an accurate observation about pricing in today's business environment?
A) With ubiquitous online price matching, pricing decisions are more or less automatic these days.
B) Many companies do not handle pricing well and fall back on familiar methods that aren't as effective as they should be.
C) Across industries and regions, most companies now use the same pricing methods.
D) The internet empowered buyers but doesn't help sellers optimize their pricing.
E) The hope of offering personalized price promotions hasn't really panned out.

C) The money-saving coupons attract only deal-seekers who rarely become long-term customers.

Which of these has been a complaint some marketers have about Groupon and its coupon deals?
A) Few consumers know about Groupon, so businesses must spend money to educate them.
B) Groupon doesn't try hard enough to sell the service.
C) The money-saving coupons attract only deal-seekers who rarely become long-term customers.
D) Consumers are getting bored with shopping and couponing apps.
E) Nobody pays attention to "buzz" anymore; they all crave authentic engagement.

A) Pricing cues

—various visual, verbal, and numerical indicators that convey information about price—are an important part of the psychology of pricing.
A) Pricing cues
B) Price tags
C) Bar codes
D) QR codes
E) Quality labels

B) The seller is trying to manipulate consumers' reference prices through the quality-price assumption.

Which of these psychological pricing tactics is likely going on when a seller positions a dress among expensive competitors and away from the less-expensive garments in the store?
A) The retailer has demanded strict partitioning by designer label.
B) The seller is trying to manipulate consumers' reference prices through the quality-price assumption.
C) "Name" designers refuse to have their wares located near other well-known designer labels.
D) The most expensive clothes are always in the back of the store.
E) The most expensive clothes are always in the front of the store.

D) Image pricing

is especially effective with ego-sensitive products such as perfumes, expensive cars, and designer clothing.
A) Exclusive pricing
B) Price matching
C) Hidden price tagging
D) Image pricing
E) Value-perception pricing

B) reference

When consumers examine products, they often compare an observed price to an internal price they remember. This is known as a(n) price.
A) markup
B) reference
C) market-skimming
D) accumulated
E) target

A) Fair

price refers to what the consumers feel the product should cost.
A) Fair
B) Typical
C) Usual discounted
D) List
E) Maximum retail

B) Fair price

While shopping at the mall, Jane was asked by one of the sales representatives at the cosmetics counter to try out a new lipstick that her company was test marketing. The company representative asks her how much she would be willing to pay for the lipstick. After trying it out, Jane is of the opinion that $5 is just the right price for it. What type of a reference price is Jane using?
A) Usual discounted price
B) Fair price
C) Maximum retail price
D) Last price paid
E) Historical competitor price

C) upper-bound

The reservation price, the maximum that most consumers will pay for a given product, is known as the price.
A) expected future
B) usual discounted
C) upper-bound
D) typical
E) historical competitor

B) Actual future price

Which of the following is NOT one of the possible consumer reference prices?
A) Typical price
B) Actual future price
C) Last price paid
D) Expected future price
E) Upper-bound price

D) Upper-bound price

A company decided to conduct a market survey for its new MP3 player that the company had priced at $150. In the survey, 95 percent of participants said that the maximum they would pay for the MP3 player is $100. This is an example of which of the following possible consumer reference prices?
A) Historical competitor price
B) Expected future price
C) Usual discounted price
D) Upper-bound price
E) Last price paid

E) lower-bound

The minimum price that most consumers would pay for a given product is known as the price.
A) everyday low
B) usual discounted
C) fair
D) typical
E) lower-bound

C) lower-bound price

A company has developed the prototype of a mobile phone that it plans to launch in the next few months. The phone comes equipped with the most advanced technological features. As part of its marketing research efforts, the company allows customers to examine and use the prototype and also gathers feedback regarding product features and price. The results of this research show that customers are willing to pay at least $500, considering the phone's various features. As such, the company has discovered customers' .
A) last paid price
B) expected future price
C) lower-bound price
D) upper-bound price
E) typical price

B) Image pricing

Many consumers are willing to pay $100 for a perfume that contains $10 worth of scent because the perfume is from a well-known brand. What kind of pricing is the company depending on?
A) Going-rate pricing
B) Image pricing
C) Market-skimming pricing
D) Target pricing
E) Markup pricing

D) product designs vary over time

Pricing cues such as sale signs and prices that end in 9 are more influential when .
A) customers have substantial knowledge about prices
B) customers purchase the particular item regularly
C) product quality is standardized
D) product designs vary over time
E) prices do not vary from time to time

D) 3 to 5

How many pricing tiers are there in most markets?
A) Several dozen
B) 1 to 2
C) 10 to 15
D) 3 to 5
E) 8 to 10

A) The higher the price, the lower the demand

What is the normal relationship between price and demand in a demand curve?
A) The higher the price, the lower the demand
B) The lower the price, the higher the demand
C) The higher the price, the higher the demand
D) The lower the price, the lower the demand
E) Price and demand move in the same direction

D) Price elasticity of demand

reflects the degree to which a change in price leads to a change in quantity sold.
A) Supply elasticity
B) Demand variance
C) Price-demand
D) Price elasticity of demand
E) The price effect

E) lower the price elasticity

The , the more likely it is that raising the price can increase sales revenues.
A) more information in the marketplace
B) the higher the price elasticity
C) more sensitive consumers are to price
D) more similar competitive products are
E) lower the price elasticity

B) price indifference band

The zone in which prices can fluctuate with negligible effect on demand is known as the .
A) negligence band
B) price indifference band
C) negative elasticity zone
D) customer indifference band
E) price ignorance band

C) Part or all of the cost is borne by another party.

Which of these is a condition that usually contributes to low price elasticity?
A) There are many substitutes for a product.
B) Consumers readily notice price increases.
C) Part or all of the cost is borne by another party.
D) Consumers don't believe price hikes are justified.
E) Consumers are quick to change their buying habits.

D) A competitor may innovate with lower-cost technology, leaving the leader stuck with old technology.

Which of these is a major risk of experience-curve pricing?
A) There is a point beyond which the company can lower its prices no further.
B) The more the company produces, the less money it earns.
C) The company will reach a point where it can no longer afford to keep building production capacity.
D) A competitor may innovate with lower-cost technology, leaving the leader stuck with old technology.
E) Aggressive pricing is viewed as socially irresponsible.

B) Selecting the pricing objective

Which of the following is the first step in setting a pricing policy?
A) Selecting a pricing method
B) Selecting the pricing objective
C) Determining demand
D) Estimating cost
E) Analyzing competitors' costs, prices, and offers

D) It should determine the demand for its product.

After determining its pricing objectives, what is the next logical step a firm should take in setting its pricing policy?
A) It should analyze its competitors' costs, prices, and offers.
B) It should select its pricing method.
C) It should select its final price.
D) It should determine the demand for its product.
E) It should estimate the cost of its product.

E) maximize current profit

After estimating the demand and costs associated with alternative prices, a company has chosen to price its product in such a way that it gains the highest rate of return on its investment. The company is looking to .
A) maximize market share
B) skim the market
C) become a product-quality leader
D) survive in the market
E) maximize current profit

A) maximize their market share

Companies that believe higher sales volume leads to lower unit costs and higher long-run profits are attempting to .
A) maximize their market share
B) skim the market
C) become a product-quality leader
D) merely survive in the market
E) maximize their current profits

B) market-penetration

A company that is looking to maximize its market share would do well to follow pricing.
A) markup
B) market-penetration
C) market-skimming
D) survival
E) target-return

B) production and distribution costs fall with accumulated production experience

A market-penetration pricing strategy is most suitable when .
A) a low price slows down market growth
B) production and distribution costs fall with accumulated production experience
C) a high price dissuades potential competitors from entering the market
D) the market is characterized by inelastic demand
E) a low price encourages actual competition

B) market-skimming pricing

When a company introduces a product at a high price and then gradually drops the price over time, it is pursuing a strategy.
A) market-penetration pricing
B) market-skimming pricing
C) value-pricing
D) switching cost
E) loss-leader pricing

C) Market-skimming pricing

When Apple introduced its iPhone, it was priced at $599. This allowed Apple to earn the maximum amount of revenue from the various segments of the market. Two months after the introduction, the price had come down to $399. What kind of a pricing did Apple adopt?
A) Loss-leader pricing
B) Market-penetration pricing
C) Market-skimming pricing
D) Target-return pricing
E) Value pricing

E) product-quality leadership

Starbucks, Aveda, and BMW have been able to position themselves within their categories by combining quality, luxury, and premium prices with an intensely loyal customer base. These companies are employing a strategy.
A) market-skimming
B) market-penetration
C) survival
D) market share maximization
E) product-quality leadership

C) understand what affects price sensitivity

The first step in estimating demand is to .
A) analyze competitors' cost
B) select a pricing method
C) understand what affects price sensitivity
D) calculate fixed costs
E) decipher the experience curve

E) when they do not readily notice higher prices

Consumers are less price sensitive .
A) to high cost items
B) when they frequently change their buying habits
C) when there are more substitutes
D) when there are more competitors
E) when they do not readily notice higher prices

A) price is only a small part of the total cost spent on the product over its lifetime

Consumers are less price sensitive when .
A) price is only a small part of the total cost spent on the product over its lifetime
B) they perceive the higher prices to be unjustified
C) they change their buying habits regularly
D) there are many substitutes and competitors in the market
E) they are buying high-cost items

C) inelastic

If demand hardly changes with a small change in price, the demand is said to be .
A) strained
B) marginal
C) inelastic
D) flexible
E) unit elastic

A) price indifference band

If consumers were largely indifferent to a $0.05 increase in the price of a gallon of milk, the price rise is said to fall within customers' .
A) price indifference band
B) experience curve
C) arm's-length price
D) learning curve
E) net price index

E) fixed

Rent, heat, interest, and salaries are examples of costs.
A) total
B) average
C) activity-based
D) variable
E) fixed

B) Within the price indifference band, price changes have little or no effect on demand.

Which of the following is true regarding price elasticity?
A) The higher the elasticity, the lesser is the volume growth resulting from a 1 percent price reduction.
B) Within the price indifference band, price changes have little or no effect on demand.
C) If demand is elastic, sellers will consider increasing the price.
D) Price elasticity does not depend on magnitude and direction of the contemplated price change.
E) When demand is inelastic, sellers should lower prices in order to increase total revenue.

A) fixed

Costs that do not vary with production levels or sales revenue are known as costs.
A) fixed
B) variable
C) average
D) opportunity
E) total

E) variable

Costs that differ directly with the level of production are known as costs.
A) fixed
B) overhead
C) opportunity
D) target
E) variable

B) Average

cost is the cost per unit at that level of production; it equals total costs divided by production volume.
A) Target
B) Average
C) Marginal
D) Opportunity
E) Fixed

C) experience curve

The decline in the average cost of production with accumulated production history is called the .
A) demand curve
B) supply chain
C) experience curve
D) value chain
E) indifference curve

A) assumes competitors are weak followers

Experience-curve pricing .
A) assumes competitors are weak followers
B) allows products to project a high quality image
C) is applicable only to manufacturing costs
D) focuses on reducing fixed costs
E) is generally risk-free

C) Markup pricing

Which of the following is the most elementary pricing method?
A) Value pricing
B) Going-rate pricing
C) Markup pricing
D) Target-return pricing
E) Perceived-value pricing

E) Many people feel that cost-plus pricing is fairer to both buyers and sellers.

Which of these is a reason markup pricing remains popular despite its weaknesses?
A) Sellers can determine demand much more easily than they can estimate costs.
B) By tying the price to cost, the pricing task becomes more sophisticated.
C) When all firms in the industry use markup pricing, price competition flourishes.
D) Sellers take advantage of buyers when the latter's demand becomes acute.
E) Many people feel that cost-plus pricing is fairer to both buyers and sellers.

C) $20.25

A manufacturer has invested $750,000 in a new product and wants to set a price to earn a 15 percent ROI. The cost per unit is $18 and the company expects to sell 50,000 units in the first year. Calculate the company's target-return price for this product.
A) $18.10
B) $18.23
C) $20.25
D) $20.70
E) $25.50

E) 55,000

An umbrella manufacturing company's fixed costs are $275,000. The variable cost per unit is $5 and each umbrella is sold at $10. How many units does the firm need to sell in order to break even?
A) 1,819
B) 5,500
C) 18,000
D) 27,500
E) 55,000

A) Economic-value-to-customer

pricing takes into account a host of inputs, such as the buyer's image of the product performance, the channel deliverables, the warranty quality, customer support, and attributes such as the supplier's reputation, trustworthiness, and esteem.
A) Economic-value-to-customer
B) Value
C) Going-rate
D) Auction-type
E) Markup

B) deliver more unique value than competitors

The key to economic-value-to-customer pricing is to .
A) reengineer the company's operations
B) deliver more unique value than competitors
C) adopt subtle marketing tactics compared to competitors
D) deliver more value but at a lower cost
E) invest heavily in advertising in order to convey superior value

A) going-rate

In pricing, the firm bases its price largely on competitors' prices.
A) going-rate
B) auction-type
C) markup
D) target-return
E) perceived-value

B) English auctions (ascending bid)

Which of the following auctions is characterized by one seller and many buyers?
A) Walrasian auctions
B) English auctions (ascending bid)
C) Closed auctions
D) Sealed-bid auctions
E) Reverse auctions

E) A Dutch auction with one seller and many buyers

In which of the following auctions does the auctioneer first announce a high price for a product and then slowly decreases the price until a bidder accepts?
A) A Dutch auction with one buyer and many sellers
B) An English auction with one seller and many buyers
C) An ascending bid auction
D) A sealed-bid auction
E) A Dutch auction with one seller and many buyers

A) Dutch auction with one buyer and many sellers

In a(n) , the buyer announces something he or she wants to buy, and potential sellers compete to offer the lowest price.
A) Dutch auction with one buyer and many sellers
B) English auction with one buyer and many sellers
C) English auction with one seller and many buyers
D) sealed-bid auction
E) ascending auction

B) Sealed-bid

auctions let would-be suppliers submit only one bid, and they cannot know the amounts of other bids.
A) Descending bid
B) Sealed-bid
C) English
D) Dutch
E) Reverse

B) loss-leader

When supermarkets and department stores drop the price on well-known brands to stimulate store traffic, they are said to be following pricing.
A) value
B) loss-leader
C) special event
D) high-low
E) everyday low

E) first-degree price discrimination

In , the seller charges a separate price to each customer depending on the intensity of his or her demand.
A) second-degree price discrimination
B) third-degree price discrimination
C) psychological discounting
D) special-customer pricing
E) first-degree price discrimination

A) less to buyers of larger volumes

In second-degree price discrimination, the seller charges .
A) less to buyers of larger volumes
B) different prices depending on the season, day, or hour
C) a separate price to each customer depending on the intensity of his or her demand
D) different prices for different versions of the same product
E) different prices for the same product depending on the channel through which it is sold

B) third-degree price discrimination

In , the seller charges different amounts to different segments of buyers.
A) perceived value pricing
B) third-degree price discrimination
C) first-degree price discrimination
D) second-degree price discrimination
E) psychological discounting

C) customer-segment

When museums charge a lower admission fee to students and senior citizens, this form of price discrimination is known as pricing.
A) location
B) channel
C) customer-segment
D) special-customer
E) loss-leader

D) channel

When Coca-Cola carries a different price depending on whether the consumer purchases it in a fine restaurant, a fast-food restaurant, or a vending machine, this form of price discrimination is known as pricing.
A) product-form
B) loss-leader
C) special event
D) channel
E) location

E) location

The prices of tickets to the opera vary depending on where the person would like to be seated. This is an example of pricing.
A) channel
B) time
C) image
D) product-form
E) location

D) time

When hotels drop their rates on the weekends, this form of price discrimination is known as pricing.
A) channel
B) image
C) product-form
D) time
E) location

B) yield pricing

The airline and hospitality industries use , by which they offer discounted but limited early purchases, higher-priced late purchases, and the lowest rates on unsold inventory just before it expires.
A) special-customer pricing
B) yield pricing
C) cash rebates
D) location pricing
E) customer-segment pricing

C) Predatory pricing

refers to selling below cost with the intention of destroying competition.
A) Bid rigging
B) Loss-leader pricing
C) Predatory pricing
D) Price discrimination
E) Price penetration

D) the practice must not breed customer resentment and ill will

For price discrimination to work, .
A) the market must be segmentable and the segments must show similar intensities of demand
B) members in the lower-price segment must be able to resell the product to the higher-price segment
C) competitors must be able to undersell the firm in the higher-price segment
D) the practice must not breed customer resentment and ill will
E) the extra revenue derived from price discrimination must not exceed the cost of segmenting and policing the market

C) customer-segment

When a movie theater charges a lower ticket fee for children and senior citizens, it is engaging in pricing.
A) product-form
B) image
C) customer-segment
D) location
E) time

A) cost inflation

A major circumstance provoking price increases is , wherein rising costs unmatched by productivity gains squeeze profit margins and lead companies to regular rounds of price increases.
A) cost inflation
B) production overruns
C) cost miscalculations
D) low rates of return
E) failures to secure supplies at reasonable prices

C) When there are few competing firms

Which of these signals a condition where competitors are most likely to react to a price change?
A) When the firm has a weak value proposition
B) When the firm enjoys a monopoly
C) When there are few competing firms
D) When the product is heterogeneous
E) When buyers have limited information

B) an escalator clause

When a company requires customers to pay today's price and all or part of any inflation increase that takes place before delivery, it is known as .
A) special-customer pricing
B) an escalator clause
C) delayed quotation pricing
D) unbundling
E) time pricing

C) unbundling

When a company maintains its price but removes or prices separately one or more elements that were part of the former offer, such as free delivery or installation, this is known as .
A) escalating
B) differentiation
C) unbundling
D) reverse discounting
E) delayed quotation pricing

D) Incentives

are sales promotion tools, mostly short-term, designed to stimulate quicker or greater purchase of particular products or services by consumers or the trade.
A) Giveaways
B) Ethical bribes
C) Slotting allowances
D) Incentives
E) Lures

B) Frequency awards

Which of these is a consumer franchise building incentive?
A) Price-off packs
B) Frequency awards
C) Contests
D) Refund offers
E) Sweepstakes

A) net price analysis

By monitoring the proportion of customers receiving discounts, the average discount, and any tendency for salespeople to rely too heavily on discounting, managers use to arrive at the "real price" of an offering.
A) net price analysis
B) discount analysis
C) price research
D) price monitoring
E) price trending

D) Helping a brand move up-market in consumers' eyes

Which of these is NOT a typical objective for consumer incentive programs?
A) Encouraging more frequent purchases
B) Fostering trial use among nonusers
C) Encouraging the purchase of larger-sized units
D) Helping a brand move up-market in consumers' eyes
E) Attracting switchers away from competitors' brands

A) push strategy

A(n) uses the manufacturer's sales force, trade promotion money, or other means to induce intermediaries to carry, promote, and sell the product to end users.
A) push strategy
B) incentive plan
C) promotional plan
D) pull strategy
E) co-op program

C) pull strategy

In a(n) the manufacturer uses advertising, promotion, and other forms of communication to persuade consumers to demand the product from intermediaries, thus inducing the intermediaries to order it.
A) push strategy
B) consumer enticement
C) pull strategy
D) frequent traveler/shopper program
E) end-around tactic

C) Trade incentives

aim to increase the attractiveness of an offering for the members of the distribution channel.
A) Push programs
B) Pull programs
C) Trade incentives
D) Consumer incentives
E) Coupons

C) Allowances

are offered by a manufacturer to trade-channel members if they will perform certain functions, such as selling, storing, and recordkeeping.
A) Consumer promotions
B) Quantity discounts
C) Allowances
D) Seasonal discounts
E) Trade-in allowances

D) seasonal discounts

When hotels, motels, and airlines offer discounts in slow selling periods, they are said to be offering .
A) trade discounts
B) quantity discounts
C) functional discounts
D) seasonal discounts
E) trade-in allowances

B) Coupons

are certificates that entitle the bearer to a stated saving on the purchase of a specific product.
A) Samples
B) Coupons
C) Rebates
D) Price packs
E) Premiums

A) Rebates

are consumer promotion tools that provide a price reduction after purchase rather than at the retail shop.
A) Rebates
B) Cents-off deals
C) Price packs
D) Coupons
E) Premiums

D) merchandise offered at a relatively low cost or free as an incentive to purchase a particular product

Premiums, as a consumer promotion tool, are defined as .
A) offers to consumers of savings off the regular price of a product, flagged on the label or package
B) certificates entitling the bearer to a stated saving on the purchase of a specific product
C) programs providing rewards related to the consumer's frequency and intensity in purchasing the company's products or services
D) merchandise offered at a relatively low cost or free as an incentive to purchase a particular product
E) values in cash or in other forms that are proportional to patronage of a certain vendor or group of vendors

E) Forward buying

Which of the following terms describes the practice of retailers purchasing a greater quantity during a sales promotion period than they can immediately sell?
A) Diverting
B) Panic buying
C) Straight rebuy
D) Buyout
E) Forward buying

A) Diverting

Which of the following retailer practices involves buying more units than needed of a product under a sales promotion in a region where the manufacturer offers a promotion deal and shipping the surplus to their stores in non-deal regions?
A) Diverting
B) Panic buying
C) Hoarding
D) Stockpiling
E) Forward buying

C) sales contest

A is a sales force promotion tool that aims at inducing the sales force or dealers to increase their sales results over a stated period, with prizes (money, trips, gifts, or points) going to those who succeed.
A) trade show
B) frequency program
C) sales contest
D) sweepstake
E) patronage award

B) Conviction

What is the last buyer-response stage that consumers pass through before making the purchase?
A) Knowledge
B) Conviction
C) Preference
D) Awareness
E) Action

A) Setting the objectives

What is the first step in developing an effective marketing communication program?
A) Setting the objectives
B) Identifying the audience
C) Crafting the message
D) Deciding on the media
E) Developing the creative approach

C) Decoding

If a consumer flipping through TV channels mishears a commercial, this represents a failure in which element of the macromodel of the communication process?
A) Encoding
B) Noise
C) Decoding
D) Messaging
E) Media

B) Noise

Your company's latest ad appears on a popular news website alongside ads from several other companies. What element in the macromodel of the communication process do these other ads represent?
A) Encoding
B) Noise
C) Decoding
D) Messaging
E) Media

B) Marketing communications

refers to the means by which firms attempt to inform, persuade, and remind consumers—directly or indirectly—about the products and brands they sell.
A) Human resource development
B) Marketing communications
C) Financial management
D) Operations management
E) Planning

B) Noise

Which of the following factors found in the macromodel of the communications process refers to random and competing messages that may interfere with the intended communication?
A) Negative feedback
B) Noise
C) Attenuation
D) Phase lag
E) Selective distortion

A) Cognitive stage—affective stage—behavioral stage

Which of the following is the correct order of stages that a buyer is assumed to pass through in the classic response hierarchy models?
A) Cognitive stage—affective stage—behavioral stage
B) Affective stage—cognitive stage—behavioral stage
C) Behavioral stage—affective stage—cognitive stage
D) Cognitive stage—behavioral stage—affective stage
E) Affective stage—behavioral stage—cognitive stage

C) Do-feel-learn

LCH is a leading electronics company that produces and markets its own brand of desktop and laptop computers for both consumers and businesses. Which of the following sequences of consumer responses is relevant as a marketing communications model for LCH's products?
A) Learn-do-feel
B) Feel-learn-do
C) Do-feel-learn
D) Feel-do-learn
E) Do-learn-feel

C) Real estate

Classic response hierarchy models of the communication process assume the buyer passes through cognitive, affective, and behavioral stages, in that order. Which of the following product categories lends itself most appropriately to such a "learn-feel-do" sequence?
A) Clothes
B) Dishwashers
C) Real estate
D) Personal computer
E) Air tickets

D) Learn-do-feel

When planning communications for a detergent brand, which of the following sequences of buyer responses should the marketer base the communications program on?
A) Feel-do-learn
B) Do-feel-learn
C) Feel-learn-do
D) Learn-do-feel
E) Learn-feel-do

D) Product development cost

Which of these is NOT one of the main factors to consider when setting the marketing communication budget?
A) Stage in the product life cycle
B) Degree of product differentiation
C) Market share
D) Product development cost
E) Message complexity

C) Temporal benchmark (a deadline)

The objective "raise brand awareness to at least 40 percent among consumers 18 to 49" is missing which critical element of an actional objective?
A) Quantitative benchmark
B) Qualitative benchmark
C) Temporal benchmark (a deadline)
D) Definition of "awareness"
E) Details of how awareness will be raised

A) objective-and-task

If a marketing department sets its budget by establishing goals and identifying the action items needed to achieve those goals, it is using budgeting.
A) objective-and-task
B) objective-based
C) objective-driven
D) task-based
E) goal-driven

D) less differentiated

Offerings in categories often require more advertising to establish a unique image than do offerings that provide distinct benefits.
A) impulse buy
B) more differentiated
C) breakout
D) less differentiated
E) up-market

E) the effectiveness of the company's communication activities

In addition to guiding the development of a communication campaign, quantitative and temporal benchmarks are important for determining .
A) next year's communication budget
B) next quarter's communication budget
C) which media and channels to use
D) which creative strategies to use
E) the effectiveness of the company's communication activities