5. Security Program Management and Oversight

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Last updated 1:55 AM on 6/25/26
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125 Terms

1
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What are Information Security Policies?

list of all security

2
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What is AUP?

acceptable use policy, what is the allowed use of technology

3
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What is business continuity?

the outline of procedures to ensure an organization maintains critical operations and protects its assets, employees, and customers during unexpected disruptions

4
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What is a disaster recovery plan?

documented, structured approach outlining how an organization responds to unplanned incidents

5
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What are security incidents policies?

steps to address security incidents

6
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What are the different roles in an incident response?

incident response team, IT security management, compliance officers, technical staff, initial users

7
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What is NIST?

national institute of standards and technology, computer security incident handling guide

8
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What is SDLC?

systems development life cycle, frameworks outlining the development steps

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What are change management standards?

how to make a change to a system

10
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What are security standards?

formal definition for using security technologies and processes

11
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What are access control standards?

who has access to view what information

12
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What are physical security standards?

rules and policies regarding physical security controls, granting physical access

13
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What are change management procedures?

formal process for managing change

14
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What are the steps of change management?

Scope, risk, plan, user approval, approach board, implement and document changes

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What is onboarding?

creating a new user account and provide tech

16
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What is offboarding?

proper allocation of hardware and data when an account is deactivated

17
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What is a playbook?

steps to follow for certain situations

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What is a SOAR?

security orchestration, automation, and response, used to integrate cyber tools and automated processes

19
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What the governance structures?

boards, committees, government entities, and centralized/decentralized governance

20
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What are boards?

the people in charge of setting the tasks/requirements for the committees

21
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What are committees?

the experts in designated areas, determine resource allocation and present results to board

22
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What are government entities?

a different kind of machine who deal with legal concerns, administrative requirements, and political issues

23
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What are centralized structures?

governance is located in one location with a group of decision makers

24
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What are decentralized structures?

governance spreads the decision

25
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What are regulatory considerations?

regulations are mandated security processes (ex: SOX for financial data, HIPAA for healthcare info)

26
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What are legal considerations?

security team's legal responsibilities such as reporting illegal activity, holding data for legal proceedings, breach notifications, and cloud computing ramifications

27
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What are industry considerations?

specific security requirements per industry (ex: financial = more rules, medical = high security with logs/encryption)

28
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What is geographical security scope?

the scale of security concerns based on company reach

29
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What is SOX?

Sarbanes

30
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What is HIPAA?

regulates the proper storage of healthcare information

31
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Who is a data owner?

accountable for specific data, often a senior officer/manager

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Who is a data controller?

manages how the data is used

33
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Who is a data processor?

uses the data itself

34
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Who is a data custodian/steward?

responsible for data accuracy, privacy, and security, and ensures compliance with data laws/requirements

35
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What is risk identification?

understanding potential risks, weaknesses, and vulnerabilities

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What is risk management?

managing potential risk by qualifying internal/external threats and planning contingencies

37
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What is a risk assessment?

the evaluation of risk, either one

38
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What is an ad hoc assessment?

one specific assessment, such as for a new threat

39
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What is a recurring assessment?

internal evaluations done on standard intervals

40
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What is qualitative risk assessment?

identifies significant risk factors, displayed visually through a grid

41
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What is ARO?

Annualized Rate of Occurrence, how likely a risk will occur in a year

42
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What is AV?

Asset Value, the value of the asset to the organization including cost, impact, and effect

43
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What is EF?

Exposure Factor, the percentage of value lost due to an incident

44
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What is SLE?

Single Loss Expectancy, monetary loss if a single event occurs (AV x EF)

45
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What is ALE?

Annualized Loss Expectancy, monetary loss of events in a year (ARO x SLE)

46
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What are the impact categories?

life, property, safety, and finance

47
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What is risk likelihood?

qualitative measurement of risk (rare, possible, almost certain)

48
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What is risk probability?

quantitative/statistical measurement of risk

49
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What is risk appetite?

description of risk

50
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What is risk tolerance?

an acceptable variance from the risk appetite

51
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What is a risk register?

level of risk mapped for each new project, includes key risk indicators, risk owners, and risk thresholds

52
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What is a risk threshold?

the point where the cost of mitigation equals the value gained by mitigation

53
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What is risk transfer?

moving the risk to another party (ex: cybersecurity insurance)

54
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What is risk acceptance?

a business decision to take on the risk

55
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What is acceptance with exemption?

a security policy or regulation cannot be followed, going beyond regulation scope (may need approval)

56
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What is acceptance with exception?

internal security policies are not applied, an exception alters the timeline

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What is risk avoidance?

no need to pursue because it is no longer a threat

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What is risk mitigation?

decreasing the risk level by investing in security systems

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What is risk reporting?

formal document used to identify risks, used for decisions on resources, budgeting, and security tasks

60
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61
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What is RTO?

Recovery Time Objective, timeframe for how long it takes to get back up and running

62
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What is RPO?

Recovery Point Objective, the point in time where systems are back up (ex: 75% or 12 months of data restored)

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What is MTTR?

Mean Time to Repair, average time to fix an issue including diagnosis

64
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What is MTBF?

Mean Time Between Failures, the time between outages (total uptime / number of breakdowns)

65
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What is third

party risk?

66
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What is penetration testing?

simulating an attack by exploiting vulnerabilities, often a compliance mandate done by 3rd parties

67
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What are rules of engagement?

defines purpose and scope of a pen test: scene, time of day, on/off limits, and how to handle sensitive info

68
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What is a right

to

69
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What is supply chain analysis?

examining all organizations, people, activities, and resources involved in creating a product to identify vulnerabilities

70
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What is an independent assessment?

an external evaluation that provides a different perspective on operations/security

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What is the vendor selection process?

due diligence and checking for conflicts of interest (ex: vendor working with a competitor, related parties)

72
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What is vendor monitoring?

ongoing management of vendor relationships with frequent reviews

73
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What are questionnaires?

security

74
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What is an SLA?

Service Level Agreement, minimum terms for services provided by a third party

75
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What is an MOU?

Memorandum of Understanding, a formal non

76
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What is an MOA?

Memorandum of Agreement, the next step above an MOU where both sides conditionally agree to the objectives

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What is an MSA?

Master Service Agreement, legal contract setting broad terms used as a framework for future projects

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What is a WO/SOW?

Work Order / Statement of Work, specific list of items to be completed under an MSA, including scope, location, deliverables, and acceptance criteria

79
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What is an NDA?

Non

80
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What is a BPA?

Business Partners Agreement, financial and ownership agreements when going into business together

81
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What is compliance?

meeting the standards of laws, policies, and regulations; penalties include fines, loss of employment, and incarceration

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What is internal compliance reporting?

monitoring/reporting organizational compliance efforts; large orgs use a Central Compliance Officer (CCO)

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What is external compliance reporting?

documentation required by external/industry regulators; may be annual or ongoing

84
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What is GLBA?

Gramm

85
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What are consequences of noncompliance?

reputational damage, loss of license, and contractual impacts

86
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What is compliance monitoring?

ensuring compliance in day

87
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What is due diligence?

investigating and verifying; often associated with third

88
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What is due care?

acting honestly and in good faith; tends to refer to internal activities

89
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What is attestation and acknowledgment?

executive accountability for ensuring everything is done in good faith

90
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What are privacy legal implications?

an evolving set of guidelines at local/regional, national, and global levels

91
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What is GDPR?

General Data Protection Regulation, an EU regulation for data protection and privacy that controls where personal data goes

92
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What is a data subject?

any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (name, ID, address, characteristics, location)

93
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What is a data inventory?

a list of all managed data including owner, update frequency, and format

94
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What is internal use of data inventory?

project collaboration, IT security, and data quality checks

95
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What is external use of data inventory?

selecting data to share publicly while following laws and regulations

96
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What is a cybersecurity audit?

examines IT infrastructure, software, and devices to check effectiveness of policies and find vulnerabilities; internal or 3rd party

97
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What is attestation (audit)?

an auditor provides an opinion of truth/accuracy on a company's cybersecurity posture

98
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What is an internal audit?

compliance review done by an audit committee or via self

99
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What is an audit committee?

oversees risk management activities

100
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What is an external audit?

audit by an independent 3rd party, often based on regulatory requirements and including hands