Exam 5 green book

For a patient undergoing bone imaging, which of the following information from the medical history is relevant to the interpretation of the bone image?

a.) splenectomy 5 years ago

b.) abdominal surgery 10 days ago

c.) radiation therapy to the breast 6 months ago

d.) gallbladder surgery a year ago

e.) results of previous bone image procedures

e.)

If a patient is injected with Tc99m MAA while in an upright position, which of the following is most likely to be seen on the perfusion lung images?

a.) increased tracer activity in the lung apices

b.) decreased tracer activity in the lung bases

c.) decreased tracer activity in lung apices

d.) decreased tracer activity throughout both lungs

e.) the heart

c.)

If the usual adult dosage of Tc99m MAA is 4 mCi, a patient who has had a right pneumonectomy should receive what dosage?

a.) 1 mCi

b.) 3 mCi

c.) 2 mCi

d.) 5 mCi

e.) 4 mCi

c.)

Which of the following steps would be appropriate during a stand-assist wheelchair transfer?

a.) the wheelchair should be perpendicular to the imaging table

b.) the wheelchair footrests should be out of the way

c.) the wheelchair should be placed parallel to the imaging table

d.) the wheelchair should be unlocked

e.) the transfer should take place in the presence of a physician

b.)

Patient preparation for infection imaging using tagged white blood cells includes:

a.) fasting for at least 4 hr with a blood glucose level below 120 mg/dL

b.) lab work and information concerning recent blood transfusions

c.) discontinuation of certain meds

d.) smoking cessation for at least 24 hour

e.) fasting for at least 4 hr with a blood glucose level below 200 mg/dL

b.)

Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following collimators?

a.) flat field

b.) pinhole

c.) parallel hole

d.) pinhole or parallel hole

e.) slant hole

d.)

In performing a thyroid uptake, a technologist collects the thyroid counts 5 cm from the surface of the patient's neck and the standard counts 20 cm from the surface of the neck phantom. What is the effect on the thyroid uptake value calculated form this data?

a.) the uptake value will be falsely increased

b.) the uptake value will be falsely decreased

c.) the uptake value will be accurate

d.) the results are unpredictable

e.) there is no effect

a.)

The percentage left ventricular ejection fraction calculated from the net counts per minute shown here:

End diastole: 2875

End systole: 2162

is approximately

a.) 25%

b.) 13%

c.) 33%

d.) 100%

e.) 75%

a.)

When a technologist cares for a patient who is not known to have a communicable disease, all of the following infection control measures should be implemented except:

a.) wearing gloves when collecting a blood sample

b.) decontaminating imaging equipment with an antiseptic

c.) hand-washing before and after the nuclear medicine examination

d.) using a needle recapping device

e.) maintaining aseptic technique when administering the radiopharmaceutical

b.)

Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by which of the following?

1.) 60-100 beats/min

2.) R wave occurs at constant intervals

3.) PR interval 0.12-0.20 sec long

a.) I and II only

b.) I and III only

c.) II and III only

d.) I, II, III only

e.) III only

d.)

After stress myocardial imaging with Tl201 thallous chloride, 1-1.5 mCi of Tl201 thallous chloride may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to:

a.) improve patient throughout

b.) demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily

c.) demonstrate infarct size more precisely

d.) minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts

e.) maximize visualization of attenuation artifacts

b.)

If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 min during hepatobiliary imaging, which of the following may be administered?

a.) cimetidine

b.) morphine

c.) dobutamine

d.) furosmide

e.) adenosine

b.)

Preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes:

a.) administration of laxatives

b.) oral or intravenous hydration

c.) an enema immediately before imaging

d.) fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging

e.) an enema immediately after imaging

d.)

Which of the following Tc99m-labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding?

a.) human serum albumin

b.) lidofenin

c.) red blood cells

d.) sulfur colloid

e.) macro aggregated albumin

c.)

Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to:

a.) rule out transplant rejection

b.) increase blood flow to the kidneys

c.) enhance tracer uptake in an abnormal kidney

d.) rule out ureteropelvic obstruction

e.) decrease blood flow to the kidneys

d.)

Which of the following events is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study?

a.) the peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is elongated

b.) radioactivity is taken up into the renal cortex

c.) mechanical blockages in the renal collecting system are cleared

d.) the peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened

e.) radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder.

e.)

Early (6 hr after injection) Ga67 should be performed if which of the follow conditions is suspected?

a.) sarcoma

b.) osteomyelitis

c.) lymphoma

d.) bronchogenic

e.) chrondrosarcoma

b.)

The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is for the technologist to:

a.) wash hands both before and after patient contact

b.) wear gloves, mask, and hospital gown at all times

c.) stay home when ill

d.) maintain distance from each patient

e.) always wear a facemask

a.)

In111 Pentetreotide normally localizes in all of the following sites except:

a.) pituitary gland

b.) salivary glands

c.) spleen

d.) thyroid gland

e.) liver

b.)

SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of Tc99m exametazime?

a.) immediately

b.) 1-2 hour

c.) 15-20 hr

d.) 24 hr

e.) 48 hr

b.)

Radioactivity is visualized in all of the following areas during a normal cisternographic study except the:

a.) cerebral convexities

b.) basal cisterns

c.) central canal

d.) lateral ventricles

e.) subarachnoid space

d.)

Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole body imaging for metastases may include all of the following except:

a.) administration of 600-1000 mg of potassium perchlorate 2 hr before imaging

b.) administration of exogenous TSH

c.) discontinuation of replacement thyroid hormone

d.) following a low-iodine diet for 1-2 weeks before imaging

e.) no IV CT contrast 6 weeks before

a.)

Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after administration of F18 FDG for PET imaging?

a.) the patient may leave the imaging area and return in approximately90 min

b.) the patient should rest quietly in a designed waiting area until imaging begins

c.) the patient may read or watch television until imaging begins

d.) the patient should consume a fatty meal to clear excess tracer from the hepatobiliary system

e.) the patient should exercise in place for 15 min before the start of imaging.

b.)

In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin:

a.) 15 min after meal consumption, then every 15 min for 1 hr

b.) immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2 hr

c.) immediately after meal consumption, then every 5 min for at least 1 hr

d.) 1 hr after meal consumption, then every 15 min for the next hour

e.) 2 hr after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2 hrs

b.)

A patient with a chest tube arrives in the nuclear medicine department for an imaging study, the technologist should:

a.) place the chest tube's external apparatus on a level lower than the patients chest

b.) cancel the procedure because chest tube apparatus will interfere with the study

c.) place the chest tubes external apparatus on the imaging table next to the patient

d.) hang the chest tube's external apparatus from an IV pole and raise it above the patients chest

e.) drain the chest tube while holding in place during the imaging procedure.

a.)

Where is the x-ray generator located in a CT scanner?

a.) under the patient imaging table

b.) inside the operators console

c.) inside the gantry

d.) inside the electronics cabinet

e.) inside the computer workstation

c.)

To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi, a technologist should give what before imaging?

a.) a fatty meal

b.) dobutamine

c.) dextrose intravenously

d.) adenosine

e.) a glass of cold water

e.)

Patient Preparation for instilling colloidal P32 chromic phosphate into the peritoneal cavity include which of the following?

a.) surgical placement of a LeVeen shunt to remove excess peritoneal fluid

b.) fasting for 8-12 hr before RPH administration

c.) instructing the patient about isolation requirements

d.) introducing Tc99m sulfur colloid into the cavity to confirm that the P32 will disperse evenly

e.) administering an antacid 2-4 hours before the procedure

d.)

The administration technique for Tc99m bicasate includes which of the following?

a.) direct venous stick

b.) infusion at peak cardiac stress

c.) bolus injection technique

d.) infusion over 3 hours

e.) minimize environmental stimuli

e.)

A contraindication for performing a myocardial perfusion resting study is:

a.) fasting for 4-12 hr before the study

b.) drinking cold water before the study

c.) having a normal sinus rhythm

d.) being NPO for 4-12 before study

e.) having a nitroglycerin drip

e.)

A post-surgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologist notices that the patient's surgical dressing shows signs of drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist is to:

a.) reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel

b.) remove the old dressing and replace it with a fresh one

c.) terminate the study and transport the patient back to his/her room

d.) complete the nuclear medicine procedure and ignore the dressing

e.) remove the dressing and drain the wound.

a.)

During a red blood cell survival study, the first blood sample is taken 24 hr after the injection of the labeled cells. This 24 hr time period is needed to allow:

a.) the radiochromium to decay to a level compatible with the scintillation detector

b.) patient recovery from the radiopharmaceutical injection

c.) removal of any cells damaged during the labeling process

d.) uniform mixing of the labeled cells throughout the vascular system

e.) a better non-target ratio.

c.)

If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is known as:

a.) serum

b.) plasma

c.) antiserum

d.) blood complement

e.) clotting factor

b.)

In a hospital setting, CPR cannot legally be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest when the:

a.) patient has an infectious disease

b.) patient's spouse of significant other indicates their wishes

c.) patient is hallucinating

d.) patient's chart indicated a terminal illness

e.) patient's chart indicates DNR

e.)

Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans:

a.) gastric emptying

b.) deep vein thrombosis

c.) Meckel's diverticulum

d.) LaVeen shunt patency

e.) myocardial perfusion imaging

c.)

Data collected form a red cell survival procedure are plotted on what type of graph paper?

a.) semilog

b.) linear

c.) log-log

d.) logit-log

e.) logit-logit

a.)

Which of the following is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration?

a.) dim the lights

b.) inject using an IV line

c.) talk calmingly to the patient while injecting

d.) ask the patient to keep eyes and ears open

d.) let the patient rest for 10 minutes before injection

c.)

If a 1:50 dilution of a solution with a tracer concentration of 50 uCi/mL is prepared, followed by a 1:200 dilution of the 1:50 dilution, what is the final dilution

a.) 1:20

b.) 1:50

c.) 1:1,000

d.) 1:10

e.) 1:10,000

e.)

Which of the following medical history is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging?

a.) breast-feeding schedule

b.) mammogram results

c.) last menstrual results

d.) pregnancy status

e.) PSA level

e.)

If a Mo99/Tc99m generator is eluted at 0700 and again at 1300, the next days Tc99m yield at 0700:

a.) will be unaffected

b.) will be decreased

c.) will be increased

d.) cannot be predicted

e.) will be uniform

b.)

127 millicuries is equivalent to how many gigabecquerels?

a.) 0.003 GBq

b.) 4699 GBq

c.) 3430 GBq

d.) 4.70 GBq

e.) 4925 GBq

d.)

All of the following factors affect the amount of Tc99m eluted from a Mo99/Tc99m generator except:

a.) the amount of Mo99 activity present on the column

b.) the time elapsed

c.) the elution efficiency of the generator

d.) the time elapsed since calibration

e.) the saline volume used for elution

e.)

According to the NRC, the maximum allowable Mo99 concentration in Tc99m eluate at the time of administration to the patient must not exceed?

a.) 5 uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m

b.) 1 uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m

c.) 0.15 uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m

d.) 5 uCi in a unit dose

e.) 0.10 uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m

c.)

An eluate of Tc99m pertechnetate is assayed for Mo99 contamination with the following results:

Mo99: 45 uCi

Tc99m: 275 mCi

on the basic of this assay, the technologist should:

a.) wait for the Mo99 to decay to an acceptable level

b.) use the eluate only for studies requiring other Tc99m labeled agents

c.) discard the eluate

d.) use the eluate for only the next 12 hours

e.) wait for the Tc99m to decay to an acceptable level

c.)

If a new generator is eluted several times and each time the amount of aluminum in the eluate exceeds the USP limit, the technologist should:

a.) contact the generator manufacturer

b.) use the eluate for patients

c.) increase the elution volume

d.) prepare kits with an additional oxidation agent

e.) prepare the kit with an additional reducer agent

a.)

Which of the following Tc99m-labeled agents is approved for perfusion brain imaging?

a.) apcitide

b.) exametazime

c.) succimer

d.) tetrofosmin

e.) medronate

b.)

The shelf-life of most Tc99m-labeled radiopharmaceuticals is:

a.) 4-6 hr

b.) 18-24 hr

c.) 10-12 hr

d.) 16-18 hr

e.) 6-8 hr

e.)

If the following reagents are available:

Disofenin kit:

maximum Tc99m activity to be added: 100 mCi

reconstituting volume: 0.5-3.0 mL

Tc99m pertechnetate:

concentration: 25.0 mCi/mL

total volume: 8.0 mL

What volume of Tc99m pertechnetate must be added to the kit to prepare the maximum amount of Tc99m disofenin from one kit?

a.) 3.0 mL

b.) 4.0 mL

c.) 8.0 mL

d.) 2.5 mL

e.) 1.5 mL

a.)

One advantage of the in vivo method of Tc99m red cell tagging is that:

a.) no manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required

b.) no incubation times are required at any step in the process

c.) all circulating red cells are labeled with tracer

d.) smaller amounts of stannous chloride are required

e.) white blood cells do not interfere in the process

a.)

Boiling a Tc99m sulfur colloid preparation for too long will result in colloidal particles that are:

a.) too small

b.) clumpy

c.) optimal size

d.) chemically unstable

e.) too large

e.)

Which of the following components in a Tc99m medronate preparation is a radiochemical impurity?

a.) aluminum

b.) Mo99

c.) 0.9 NaCl

d.) Tc99m pertechnetate

e.) ascorbic acid

d.)

Which of the following image findings is most consistent with chromatography results of a Tc99m oxidronate sample demonstrating 65 % radiochemical purity?

a.) well-defined bone uptake

b.) stomach and thyroid uptake

c.) lung uptake

d.) gastrointestinal tract activity

e.) heart uptake

b.)

if 740 kBq of a radiopharmaceutical is to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity (in megabecquerels) should be administered to a patient who weighs 172 pounds?

a.) 9.5 MBq

b.) 652 MBq

c.) 78 MBq

d.) 280 MBq

e.) 58 MBq

e.)

If 50 millicuries of Tc99m MAA are available at 0700, how many lung perfusion imaging studies can be performed if the administered dose is 5 mCi and one patient is injected every hour beginning at 0730?

a.) 10

b.) 7

c.) 6

d.) 20

e.) 15

c.)

For cardiac first-pass studies, the prescribed adult dosage of Tc99m pentetate is 925 MBq +/- 10%. on the basis of the vial label information shown here for Tc99m pentetate, what is the maximum volume that should be administered to the patient at 0800 on January 5?

total activity: 3.7 GBq

total volume: 2.0 mL

concentration: 1.85 GB1/mL

calibration: 0600, January 5

a.) 0.57 mL

b.) 0.63 mL

c.) 1.0 mL

d.) 0.69 mL

e.) 1.3 mL

d.)

In labeling red blood cells with Cr51, the final step before re-injecting the labeled red blood cells into the patient is to:

a.) add ascorbic acid to the tagged blood

b.) wash the labeled red cells to remove excess Cr51

c.) separate the red blood cells from the plasma

d.) add Cr51 to the patients blood sample

e.) separate the white blood cells from the plasma

a.)

In what way does the modified in vivo method of labeling red blood cells with Tc99m pertechnetate differ from the in vivo method?

a.) the modified method requires a smaller amount of stannous pyrophosphate

b.) the modified method "pretins" only a small volume of the patient's blood.

c.) the modified method uses a smaller activity of Tc99m pertechnetate

d.) the modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patient's blood.

e.) the modified method requires a larger amount of stannous pyrophosphate

d.)

Which of the following statements about the modified in vivo method for labeling red blood cells with Tc99m pertechnetate is true?

a.) only a sample of the patient's blood is incubated with the reconstituted stannous pyrophosphate

b.) red cell labeling takes place only within the patient's circulatory system

c.) a sample of the patient's "pretinned" blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient

d.) excess Tc99m pertechnetate is removed from the blood sample before the sample is re-injected into the patient

e.) a larger amount of stannous pyrophosphate is used.

c.)

In the radiochromium labeling process, ascorbic acid is used to which of the following?

a.) reducing agent

b.) radiotracer

c.) oxidizing agent

d.) anticoagulant

e.) neutralizing agent

a.)

If a vial of Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceutical contains 4.65 MBq in 3.5 mL at 0800, what is the concentration at 0930?

a.) 1.12 MBq/mL

b.) 1.33 MBq/mL

c.) 0.90 MBq/mL

d.) 0.75 MBq/mL

e.) 0.52 MBq/mL

a.)

If a unit dosage of Tc99m pertechnetate is calibrated to contain 25 mCi in 0.8 mL at 1400, what volume should be removed from the syringe to retain 15 mCi in the syringe at 1200?

a.) 0.20 mL

b.) 0.32 mL

c.) 0.52 mL

d.) 0.48 mL

e.) 0.42 mL

e.)

If an MAA kit containing 4.5 million particles is prepared by adding 30 mCi in 2.5 mL, how many particles are contained in 3 mCi.

a.) 150,000

b.) 180,000

c.) 450,000

d.) 215,000

e.) 555,000

c.)

Of the following syringes, which size would be best for withdrawing 1 mL of radiopharmaceutical from a multidose vial?

a.) 3 mL

b.) 1 mL

c.) 5 mL

d.) 20 mL

e.) 10 mL

a.)

According to the NRC regulations, which of the following signs should be posted in unrestricted areas?

a.) Caution: radioactive materials

b.) Authorized personnel only

c.) no posting is required

d.) caution: radiation area

e.) caution: high radiation area

c.)

A package containing radioactive materials is monitored and found to produce 12 mR/hr at the surface and 0.9 mR/hr at 1 m form the surface. What DOT label must be affixed to the outside of the package?

a.) category II

b.) category I

c.) category IV

d.) no DOT label is required

e.) category III

a.)

According to the NRC, decay in storage records must include the date that the radioactive material was:

a.) calibrated

b.) received

c.) placed in storage

d.) disposed

e.) produced

d.)

All of the following statements about the HVL are true except:

a.) one HVL reduces the radiation intensity to half its original value

b.) one HVL of lead will absorb the same amount of radiation as one HVL of aluminum

c.) one HVL absorbs 50% of the photons emitted from a radiation source

d.) 2 HVLs reduce the radiation intensity to one quarter its original value

e.) one HVL of lead is the same thickness as one HVL layer of aluminum

e.)

If a patient receives 20 mCi of I131 sodium iodide instead of the prescribed dosage of 15 mCi for therapy of hyperthyroidism, which of the following individuals/agencies must be notified?

a.) NRC

b.) NRC and referring physician

c.) referring physician

d.) NRC and FDA

e.) FDA

b.)

According to NRC regulations, the annual whole-body occupational dose limit (TEDE) for adults is:

a.) 15 Rem

b.) 50 mRem

c.) 50 Rem

d.) 5000 Rem

e.) 10 Rem

d.)

A "sharps" container reads 50 mR/hr when it is placed in storage. It contains only Tc99m waste. According to NRC regulations, when can the container be disposed of as nonradioactive biohazardous waste?

a.) when the exposure rate drops to 1/10 of the original exposure rate

b.) when the container gives only a background reading with a survey meter

c.) when the exposure rate drops to 1/10 of the original exposure rate

d.) when the container gives only a background reading with a wipe test

e.) when the container gives a reading less than 5 mR/hr

b.)

According to the NRC, areas where therapeutic radiopharmaceutical are prepared or administered must be surveyed:

a.) weekly

b.) monthly

c.) quarterly

d.) after each therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered

e.) at the end of each day a therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered

e.)

According to the NRC, the NRC and the final delivery carrier must be notified if the exposure rate at the surface of a package containing radioactive materials exceeds:

a.) 100 mR/hr

b.) 2,000 mR/hr

c.) 1,000 mR/hr

d.) 200 mR/hr

e.) 10 mR/hr

d.)

Contamination on the surface of the skin is best removed by:

a.) flushing the area with hot water

b.) cleansing the area with lukewarm water and detergent

c.) scrubbing the area with a stiff brush

d.) rubbing the area with an abrasive cleanser

e.) cleansing the area with hydrogen peroxide

b.)

According to NRC regulations, which of the following concerning restricted areas is true?

a.) patient rooms become restricted areas after the patient has received a RPH

b.) only areas where RPHs are stored must be designated as restricted areas

c.) radiation area monitors are required in restricted ares

d.) restricted areas must be locked when authorized personnel are not present

e.) every entering or leaving a restricted area must be surveyed

d.)

According to NRC regulations, radioactive waste can be decayed in storage if:

a.) the exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5 mR/hr at the surface

b.) the exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5 R/hr at the surface

c.) it has a physical half-life of less than 120 days

d.) it has a physical half-life of less than 1 year

e.) it has a physical half-life of less than 100 days.

c.)

If the ambient exposure rate in a hot lab is determined to be 1.2 mR/hr, what will be the radiation dose to a technologist as a result of 3 hr of work in the lab?

a.) 3.6 mRem

b.) 0.4 mRem

c.) 0.06 mRem

d.) 50 mRem

e.) 40 mRem

a.)

Which of the following must be performed before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor?

a.) confirm that the exposure rate does not exceed background levels

b.) perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination

c.) cover each individual vial with a waterproof covering

d.) notify the NRC that a shipment is being made

e.) performing a calibration check on the dose calibrator

b.)

Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging?

a.) Bremsstrahlung radiation from the patient

b.) positrons escaping from the patient

c.) gamma rays form the long-lived source used for transmission scanning

d.) electromagnetic radiation from the PET camera

e.) compton scatter from the patient

e.)

Which of the following personnel monitors would be appropriate for use when monitors are changed at 3 mo intervals

a.) TLD or OSL

b.) TLD

c.) OSL

d.) film badge

e.) pocket dosimetry

a.)

A dose calibrator accuracy test may be performed with which of the following radioactive sources?

a.) 100 mCi Tc99m

b.) 75 uCi Cs137

c.) 60 uCi Tc99m

d.) 25 uCi Cs137

e.) 75 uCi Tc99m

b.)

According to standards of practice, how often must the accuracy of a dose calibrator be determined?

a.) quarterly

b.) annually

c.) monthly

d.) daily

e.) hourly

b.)

How often should linearity and spatial resolutions test be performed on a scintillation camera?

a.) daily

b.) weekly

c.) monthly

d.) quarterly

e.) yearly

b.)

If a Ga67 static image is acquired into a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix using the photopeaks at 93, 185, 300 KeV, how much computer memory is required to store the image?

a.) 256 kB

b.) 64 kB

c.) 32 kB

d.) 128 kB

e.) 16 kB

e.)

Which of the following techniques is used to help eliminate the "star" effect created during tomographic reconstruction?

a.) filtered back projection

b.) center of rotation offset correction

c.) oversampling

d.) uniformity correction

e.) iterative reconstruction

a.)

A technologist performs a linearity test on a dose calibrator. The expected activity at a given time is 28.2 uCi, and the actual reading is 27.0 uCi. Which of the following statements is correct?

a.) the instrument should be repaired or replaced

b.) the instrument can be used to measure activities in the microcurie range

c.) a correction factor of 0.96 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range

d.) a correction factor of 1.04 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range

e.) a correction factor of 1.14 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range.

b.)

When the following instruments is most appropriate for detecting low-level accidental contamination?

a.) thermoluminescent dosimeter

b.) cutie pie (ionization chamber)

c.) geiger-Mueller counter

d.) pocket dosimeter

e.) optically stimulated luminescence dosimetry

c.)

Image noise can be decreased during dedicated PET imaging by:

a.) decreasing the distance between the patient and the detectors

b.) using 2D mode

c.) decreasing the dosage activity

d.) scanning for a longer time

e.) using 4D mode

d.)

What is the standard maximum acceptable % energy resolution measured with Cs137 for a NaI(Tl) scintillation detector?

a.) 8%

b.) 12%

c.) 20%

d.) 22%

e.) 25%

b.)

A 10% window for 662 keV is set on a spectrometer with a lower-level discriminator (LLD) and an upper-level discriminator (ULD). IF each increment on the discriminator dial equals 1 keV, what should be the settings for the LLD and ULD?

a.) LLD: 596, ULD: 728

b.) LLD: 657, ULD: 667

c.) LLD: 652, ULD: 672

d.) LLD: 629, ULD: 695

e.) LLD: 667, ULD: 677

d.)

Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is best suited to survey a patient who has received 150 mCi of I131 for therapy?

a.) pocket ionization chamber

b.) portable ionization chamber

c.) Geiger-Mueller counter

d.) dose calibrator

e.) liquid scintillation counter

b.)