Anatomy Block 1 Exam (Easier)

1. The term anterior means:
A. Toward the back
B. Toward the front
C. Toward the head
D. Away from the midline

B

2. The heart is ______ to the vertebral column.
A. Posterior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Distal

C

3. The nose is ______ to the mouth.
A. Inferior
B. Superior
C. Posterior
D. Distal

B

4. The elbow is ______ to the wrist.
A. Distal
B. Proximal
C. Inferior
D. Caudal

B

5. In anatomical terminology, rostral generally means:
A. Toward the front/head
B. Toward the feet
C. Toward the back
D. Away from the body

A

6. Which pressure pushes fluid out of a capillary and into the surrounding tissues?
A. Colloid osmotic pressure
B. Hydrostatic pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Intracranial pressure

B

7. Colloid osmotic pressure is primarily produced by:
A. Sodium ions
B. Red blood cells
C. Plasma proteins
D. Platelets

C

8. What happens to hydrostatic pressure as blood travels from the arterial end toward the venous end of a capillary?
A. It increases
B. It remains constant
C. It decreases
D. It disappears completely

C

9. What is the primary role of lymphatic vessels around capillary beds?
A. Produce red blood cells
B. Return excess interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
C. Increase blood pressure
D. Transport oxygen to tissues

B

10. Failure of the lymphatic system to remove excess fluid can result in:
A. Hypertension
B. Edema
C. Anemia
D. Osteoporosis

B

11. Which structural classification of neuron has one axon and one dendrite?
A. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Pseudounipolar

B

12. Which type of neuron is most common in the CNS?
A. Bipolar
B. Multipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Unipolar sensory

B

13. Sensory neurons are also called:
A. Efferent neurons
B. Motor neurons
C. Afferent neurons
D. Interneurons

C

14. Motor neurons carry information:
A. Toward the CNS
B. Away from the CNS
C. Between sensory receptors
D. Only within the brain

B

15. Which CNS glial cell produces myelin?
A. Schwann cell
B. Astrocyte
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Microglia

C

16. Which PNS glial cell produces myelin?
A. Schwann cell
B. Oligodendrocyte
C. Astrocyte
D. Ependymal cell

A

17. Which glial cell functions as an immune defense cell in the CNS?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Schwann cell
D. Satellite cell

B

18. What is the correct organization of skeletal muscle from smallest to largest?
A. Muscle → fascicle → fiber → myofibril
B. Myofibril → muscle fiber → fascicle → muscle
C. Fascicle → myofibril → muscle → fiber
D. Muscle fiber → muscle → fascicle → myofibril

B

19. A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers is called a:
A. Fascicle
B. Tendon
C. Sarcomere
D. Myofibril

A

20. A bundle of axons within a peripheral nerve is called a:
A. Fascicle
B. Sarcomere
C. Myofibril
D. Neuron

A

21. The two types of bone ossification are:
A. Primary and secondary
B. Compact and spongy
C. Intramembranous and endochondral
D. Cortical and trabecular

C

22. Intramembranous ossification primarily forms:
A. Long bones
B. Flat bones of the skull
C. Vertebrae
D. Femur

B

23. Endochondral ossification involves:
A. Replacement of a cartilage model with bone
B. Replacement of bone with cartilage
C. Direct formation of bone from muscle
D. Formation of bone only after adulthood

A

24. Most long bones develop through:
A. Intramembranous ossification
B. Endochondral ossification
C. Fibrous ossification
D. Secondary ossification only

B

25. Compact bone is primarily found:
A. On the outer surface of bones
B. Only inside flat bones
C. Only inside the epiphysis
D. Only around joints

A

26. Spongy bone is characterized by:
A. Osteons arranged in tightly packed layers
B. Trabeculae and spaces
C. No blood supply
D. Absence of bone cells

B

27. Red bone marrow is commonly found within:
A. Compact bone osteons
B. Spongy bone
C. Tendons
D. Articular cartilage

B

28. Osteoporosis is characterized by:
A. Excessive bone density
B. Decreased bone mass and increased fracture risk
C. Infection of the bone
D. Abnormal cartilage growth

B

29. Osteomalacia involves:
A. Poor mineralization of bone
B. Excessive calcium deposition
C. Bone cancer
D. Joint infection

A

30. Osteosarcoma is:
A. A type of arthritis
B. A malignant bone tumor
C. A vitamin deficiency
D. A muscle disorder

B

31. Arthritis primarily affects:
A. Nerves
B. Joints
C. Blood vessels
D. Bone marrow

B

32. Atherosclerosis involves:
A. Inflammation of skeletal muscle
B. Plaque buildup within arteries
C. Destruction of neurons
D. Excessive bone formation

B

33. Atherosclerotic plaques can reduce blood flow because they:
A. Increase the size of the artery
B. Narrow the arterial lumen
C. Increase red blood cell production
D. Increase lymphatic drainage

B

34. The primary purpose of a lymph node is to:
A. Produce hormones
B. Filter lymph and help initiate immune responses
C. Produce bile
D. Store calcium

B

35. A sentinel lymph node is:
A. The largest lymph node in the body
B. The first lymph node likely to receive drainage from a tumor
C. A lymph node found only in the brain
D. A lymph node that produces red blood cells

B

36. Which of the following is an unpaired skull bone?
A. Parietal
B. Temporal
C. Frontal
D. Maxilla

C

37. Which pair contains only paired skull bones?
A. Frontal and occipital
B. Parietal and temporal
C. Sphenoid and ethmoid
D. Mandible and frontal

B

38. CSF is found primarily in the:
A. Epidural space
B. Subdural space
C. Subarachnoid space
D. Intramuscular space

C

39. The choroid plexus is responsible for:
A. Producing CSF
B. Producing neurons
C. Producing skull bones
D. Absorbing oxygen

A

40. CSF is returned to the bloodstream primarily through:
A. Choroid plexuses
B. Arachnoid granulations
C. Dural folds
D. Ventricular walls

B

41. Arachnoid granulations drain CSF into:
A. Arteries
B. Dural venous sinuses
C. Lymph nodes
D. Ventricles

B

42. Hydrocephalus is characterized by:
A. Excess CSF accumulation
B. Lack of blood in the brain
C. Bone loss in the skull
D. Excessive production of neurons

A

43. A common consequence of increased CSF pressure is:
A. Increased intracranial pressure
B. Decreased blood pressure throughout the body
C. Increased bone density
D. Improved neural function

A

44. Meningitis is inflammation of the:
A. Brain tissue only
B. Meninges
C. Skull
D. Spinal cord only

B

45. Meningitis can be caused by:
A. Bacteria or viruses
B. Only fractures
C. Only osteoporosis
D. Excess calcium

A

46. Which four major regions make up the brain?
A. Cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, diencephalon
B. Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital
C. Cortex, medulla, pons, spinal cord
D. Cerebrum, spinal cord, meninges, ventricles

A

47. Which brain region is primarily associated with balance and coordination?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla
D. Thalamus

A

48. The brainstem consists of the:
A. Cerebrum, cerebellum, and thalamus
B. Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
C. Frontal and parietal lobes
D. Hypothalamus and thalamus

B

49. The thalamus is primarily involved in:
A. Relaying sensory information
B. Producing skeletal muscle
C. Producing CSF exclusively
D. Controlling bone growth

A

50. The hypothalamus plays an important role in:
A. Homeostasis
B. Hearing only
C. Voluntary skeletal muscle movement only
D. Vision only

A

51. A brain tumor can be clinically dangerous because:
A. The skull has limited space for expansion
B. The brain has no blood supply
C. Tumors always spread to bones
D. The brain cannot develop inflammation

A

52. Infection from the facial region can potentially spread toward the cavernous sinus because:
A. Facial veins have connections with intracranial venous structures
B. Arteries directly enter the ventricles
C. The skull has no protective barriers
D. Lymph nodes connect directly to the brain

A

53. Infection spreading to the meninges can result in:
A. Meningitis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Cataracts
D. Glaucoma

A

54. CN I is the:
A. Optic nerve
B. Olfactory nerve
C. Oculomotor nerve
D. Vagus nerve

B

55. CN II is primarily responsible for:
A. Smell
B. Vision
C. Hearing
D. Facial expression

B

56. CN V is the:
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve

B

57. The trigeminal nerve is primarily responsible for:
A. Facial sensation and muscles of mastication
B. Hearing and balance
C. Smell
D. Tongue movement only

A

58. CN VII is the:
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Accessory nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

59. CN VII controls:
A. Facial expression
B. Vision
C. Tongue sensation only
D. Hearing

A

60. CN VIII is responsible for:
A. Hearing and balance
B. Facial expression
C. Smell
D. Tongue movement

A

61. CN X is the:
A. Accessory nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

B

62. CN XII primarily controls:
A. Tongue movement
B. Facial expression
C. Hearing
D. Vision

A

63. Which cranial nerve is sensory only?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN II
D. CN X

C

64. Which cranial nerve is mixed?
A. CN II
B. CN VIII
C. CN V
D. CN I

C

65. The muscles of facial expression are innervated by:
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN XII

B

66. Sensory innervation of most of the face is provided by:
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve

B

67. How many bones form the orbit of the eye?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

C

68. The lacrimal apparatus is primarily responsible for:
A. Producing and draining tears
B. Moving the eyeball
C. Controlling pupil dilation
D. Producing CSF

A

69. Which cranial nerve innervates most extraocular muscles?
A. CN II
B. CN III
C. CN V
D. CN VII

B

70. The lateral rectus muscle is innervated by:
A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN VI
D. CN VII

C

71. The superior oblique muscle is innervated by:
A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN V
D. CN VI

B

72. Horner's syndrome is associated with disruption of:
A. Sympathetic innervation
B. Parasympathetic innervation only
C. CN II only
D. CN VIII

A

73. In the direct light reflex:
A. Both pupils constrict
B. The illuminated eye constricts
C. The opposite eye constricts only
D. Neither pupil responds

B

74. In the consensual light reflex:
A. The opposite pupil also constricts
B. Only the illuminated pupil constricts
C. Both pupils dilate
D. Neither pupil changes

A

75. Glaucoma is associated with:
A. Increased intraocular pressure that can damage the optic nerve
B. Clouding of the lens only
C. Inflammation of the middle ear
D. Damage to the retina from trauma only

A

76. Which muscle is NOT a muscle of mastication?
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Buccinator

D

77. The paranasal sinuses primarily:
A. Produce CSF
B. Help lighten the skull and contribute to voice resonance
C. Control eye movement
D. Produce saliva

B

78. The tensor tympani is innervated by:
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN VIII
D. CN X

A

79. The stapedius muscle is innervated by:
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN XII

B

80. Dysfunction of the stapedius muscle can contribute to:
A. Hyperacusis
B. Cataracts
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Osteoporosis

A

81. Otitis externa affects the:
A. External ear
B. Middle ear
C. Inner ear
D. Brainstem

A

82. Chronic otitis media involves problems with the:
A. Middle ear
B. External ear
C. Retina
D. Inner ear only

A

83. A myringotomy involves:
A. Removing the cochlea
B. Creating an opening in the tympanic membrane to help drain fluid
C. Removing the auditory nerve
D. Repairing the optic nerve

B

84. The organ of hearing is the:
A. Vestibule
B. Semicircular canals
C. Cochlea
D. Utricle

C

85. The structures primarily associated with balance include the:
A. Cochlea only
B. Vestibular apparatus
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Auditory tube

B

86. The sternocleidomastoid is innervated primarily by:
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN XI
D. CN XII

C

87. The genioglossus, styloglossus, and hyoglossus are muscles of the:
A. Eye
B. Tongue
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx

B

88. Most muscles of the tongue are innervated by:
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN X
D. CN XII

D

89. The thyroid gland primarily produces:
A. T3 and T4
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Melatonin

A

90. The parathyroid glands primarily regulate:
A. Blood glucose
B. Blood calcium levels
C. Blood oxygen levels
D. Body temperature

B

91. Parathyroid hormone generally:
A. Decreases blood calcium
B. Increases blood calcium
C. Eliminates calcium from the body
D. Has no effect on calcium

B

92. The common carotid arteries primarily supply blood to the:
A. Head and neck
B. Lower limbs
C. Kidneys
D. Pelvis

A

93. The internal carotid artery primarily supplies:
A. The brain
B. The stomach
C. The lower limb
D. The lungs

A

94. The external carotid artery primarily supplies:
A. The brain only
B. Structures of the face and neck
C. The spinal cord only
D. The heart

B

95. Venous blood from the brain primarily drains through:
A. Dural venous sinuses
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Hepatic veins
D. Coronary arteries

A

96. A patient has weakness in facial expression after a nerve injury. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN XII

B

97. A patient cannot abduct the eye. Which cranial nerve is likely damaged?
A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN V
D. CN VI

D

98. A patient has decreased sensation over much of the face and difficulty chewing. Which nerve is affected?
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve

B

99. A patient has excessive CSF accumulation due to impaired CSF drainage. What condition is most likely?
A. Meningitis
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Glaucoma
D. Osteomalacia

B

100. A patient has difficulty moving the tongue after a cranial nerve injury. Which nerve should be evaluated?
A. CN VII
B. CN VIII
C. CN X
D. CN XII

D