POB Exam 3 Chapter Questions (Ch 25, 5, 23, 24, and 27)

DNA does NOT have which of the following characteristics?

A. has a double helix

B. bases held together by hydrogen bonds

C. has a deoxyribose sugar

D. contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil

DNA does NOT have which of the following characteristics?

A. has a double helix

B. bases held together by hydrogen bonds

C. has a deoxyribose sugar

*D. contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil

Which base is unique to DNA?

A. guanine

B. adenine

C. thymine

D. uracil

Which base is unique to DNA?

A. guanine

B. adenine

*C. thymine

D. uracil

The individual(s) credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA is (are)

A. James Watson and Francis Crick.

B. Erwin Chargaff.

C. Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

D. Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel.

The individual(s) credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA is (are)

*A. James Watson and Francis Crick.

B. Erwin Chargaff.

C. Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

D. Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel.

In semiconservative DNA replication, each new double helix formed will have

A. two new strands and two old strands.

B. one new and one old strand in each helix.

C. two new and one old strand in one helix and two old and one new strand in second helix.

D. two new strands in one helix and two old strands in the other helix.

In semiconservative DNA replication, each new double helix formed will have

A. two new strands and two old strands.

*B. one new and one old strand in each helix.

C. two new and one old strand in one helix and two old and one new strand in second helix.

D. two new strands in one helix and two old strands in the other helix.

Because one original strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter molecule, the replication process is called

A. proofreading.

B. semi-conservative.

C. freeing of DNA.

D. mutation positive.

Because one original strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter molecule, the replication process is called

A. proofreading.

*B. semi-conservative.

C. freeing of DNA.

D. mutation positive.

The enzyme that reads the template strand and makes a complementary strand of DNA is

A. DNA polymerase.

B. RNA polymerase.

C. helicase.

D. ribozyme.

The enzyme that reads the template strand and makes a complementary strand of DNA is

*A. DNA polymerase.

B. RNA polymerase.

C. helicase.

D. ribozyme.

The _____ enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double-helix structure of DNA during replication.

A. helicase

B. polymerase

C. extendase

D. windase

The _____ enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double-helix structure of DNA during replication.

*A. helicase

B. polymerase

C. extendase

D. windase

Which does NOT describe a function of the DNA polymerase molecule?

A. recognize the free nucleotide that pairs with the base on the old strand of DNA

B. read the strand of old DNA and recognize the base there

C. proofread to ensure that the proper base has been incorporated

D. synthesize the proper nucleotide to match with the base read on the old strand

Which does NOT describe a function of the DNA polymerase molecule?

A. recognize the free nucleotide that pairs with the base on the old strand of DNA

B. read the strand of old DNA and recognize the base there

C. proofread to ensure that the proper base has been incorporated

*D. synthesize the proper nucleotide to match with the base read on the old strand

Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information from the nucleus as it is needed for the construction of a protein?

A. ribosomal RNA

B. transfer RNA

C. messenger RNA

D. nuclear RNA

Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information from the nucleus as it is needed for the construction of a protein?

A. ribosomal RNA

B. transfer RNA

*C. messenger RNA

D. nuclear RNA

The function of transfer RNA is to

A. carry amino acids to ribosomes.

B. transmit coded information to the cytoplasm.

C. turn DNA on and off.

D. act as the site for protein synthesis.

The function of transfer RNA is to

*A. carry amino acids to ribosomes.

B. transmit coded information to the cytoplasm.

C. turn DNA on and off.

D. act as the site for protein synthesis.

Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the amino acids that are added to the growing polypeptide chain?

A. ribosomal RNA

B. transfer RNA

C. messenger RNA

D. ribozyme

Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the amino acids that are added to the growing polypeptide chain?

A. ribosomal RNA

*B. transfer RNA

C. messenger RNA

D. ribozyme

The ______ contain(s) the information for the structure of the protein.

A. introns

B. exons

C. promoter

D. ribosomes

The ______ contain(s) the information for the structure of the protein.

A. introns

*B. exons

C. promoter

D. ribosomes

An intervening sequence of DNA that is NOT expressed is called a(n)

A. exon.

B. intron.

C. replicon.

D. gene.

An intervening sequence of DNA that is NOT expressed is called a(n)

A. exon.

*B. intron.

C. replicon.

D. gene.

During the process of transcription, the information in

A. a protein is converted into RNA information.

B. RNA is converted into protein information.

C. RNA is converted into DNA information.

D. DNA is converted into RNA information.

E. DNA is converted into protein information.

During the process of transcription, the information in

A. a protein is converted into RNA information.

B. RNA is converted into protein information.

C. RNA is converted into DNA information.

*D. DNA is converted into RNA information.

E. DNA is converted into protein information.

Which is the process that synthesizes mRNA?

A. translation

B. transcription

C. transformation

D. translocation

Which is the process that synthesizes mRNA?

A. translation

*B. transcription

C. transformation

D. translocation

The correct sequence of events in the production of a polypeptide is

A. initiation - termination - elongation.

B. elongation - termination - initiation.

C. elongation - initiation - termination.

D. initiation - elongation - termination.

The correct sequence of events in the production of a polypeptide is

A. initiation - termination - elongation.

B. elongation - termination - initiation.

C. elongation - initiation - termination.

*D. initiation - elongation - termination.

Which is the process by which a protein is constructed in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?

A. translation

B. transcription

C. transformation

D. translocation

Which is the process by which a protein is constructed in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?

*A. translation

B. transcription

C. transformation

D. translocation

If the normal nucleotide sequence was TACGGCATG, what type of gene mutation is present if the resulting sequence becomes TAGGCATG?

A. germinal mutation

B. addition mutation

C. deletion mutation

D. substitution mutation

If the normal nucleotide sequence was TACGGCATG, what type of gene mutation is present if the resulting sequence becomes TAGGCATG?

A. germinal mutation

B. addition mutation

*C. deletion mutation

D. substitution mutation

Which of the following is NOT a frameshift mutation of the nucleotide sequence CATUAUCCC?

A. ATUAUCCC

B. CTUAUCCC

C. CATUAUCGC

D. CCATUAUCCC

Which of the following is NOT a frameshift mutation of the nucleotide sequence CATUAUCCC?

A. ATUAUCCC

B. CTUAUCCC

*C. CATUAUCGC

D. CCATUAUCCC

The anticodon

A. is found on the DNA coding strand.

B. can be found on the chart of the genetic code.

C. is found on transfer RNA.

D. is found on ribosomal RNA.

The anticodon

A. is found on the DNA coding strand.

B. can be found on the chart of the genetic code.

*C. is found on transfer RNA.

D. is found on ribosomal RNA.

The part of a transfer RNA molecule that binds to the codon is the

A. active site.

B. anticodon.

C. codon.

D. rRNA.

E. amino acid.

The part of a transfer RNA molecule that binds to the codon is the

A. active site.

*B. anticodon.

C. codon.

D. rRNA.

E. amino acid.

Mutations in DNA

A. occur at random sites.

B. are placed in DNA as needed by the cells.

C. arise due to natural selection.

D. never have an effect on mRNA sequences.

Mutations in DNA

*A. occur at random sites.

B. are placed in DNA as needed by the cells.

C. arise due to natural selection.

D. never have an effect on mRNA sequences.

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the cell cycle?

A. S-M-G1-G2

B. S-M-G2-G1

C. S-G1-G1-M

D. S-G2-M-G1

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the cell cycle?

A. S-M-G1-G2

B. S-M-G2-G1

C. S-G1-G1-M

*D. S-G2-M-G1

During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?

A. prophase

B. interphase

C. telophase

D. mitosis

During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?

A. prophase

*B. interphase

C. telophase

D. mitosis

Upon examination, a cell is found to have twice as much DNA as the normal diploid state but is no longer in the process of replicating the DNA. All of the DNA is found within a single nucleus. Which stage of the cell cycle is this cell in?

A. M phase

B. S phase

C. G1 phase

D. G2 phase

Upon examination, a cell is found to have twice as much DNA as the normal diploid state but is no longer in the process of replicating the DNA. All of the DNA is found within a single nucleus. Which stage of the cell cycle is this cell in?

A. M phase

B. S phase

C. G1 phase

*D. G2 phase

Which of the following proteins would you expect to be a coded for by a proto-oncogene?

A. a growth factor receptor

B. a DNA repair protein

C. a protein involved with the G1 checkpoint

D. a caspase

Which of the following proteins would you expect to be a coded for by a proto-oncogene?

*A. a growth factor receptor

B. a DNA repair protein

C. a protein involved with the G1 checkpoint

D. a caspase

Which type of genes, when abnormally activated so that protein is always present and active, can result in cancer?

A. tumor suppressor genes

B. proto-oncogenes

C. DNA repair protein genes

D. executioner caspase genes

Which type of genes, when abnormally activated so that protein is always present and active, can result in cancer?

A. tumor suppressor genes

*B. proto-oncogenes

C. DNA repair protein genes

D. executioner caspase genes

If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?

A. The DNA has not finished replicating.

B. There is DNA damage.

C. The cell is cancerous.

D. There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G1 checkpoint.

If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?

A. The DNA has not finished replicating.

*B. There is DNA damage.

C. The cell is cancerous.

D. There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G1 checkpoint.

Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the cell cycle?

A. cyclins

B. internal and external signals

C. growth factors

D. caspases

Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the cell cycle?

A. cyclins

B. internal and external signals

C. growth factors

*D. caspases

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A. Mitosis stops if chromosomes are not properly aligned.

B. Mitosis will not occur if DNA is damaged or not replicated.

C. If DNA is damaged, apoptosis may occur.

D. The p53 protein causes the cell to divide even if the DNA is damaged.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A. Mitosis stops if chromosomes are not properly aligned.

B. Mitosis will not occur if DNA is damaged or not replicated.

C. If DNA is damaged, apoptosis may occur.

*D. The p53 protein causes the cell to divide even if the DNA is damaged.

Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?

A. prophase, metaphase, interphase, telophase

B. anaphase, interphase, telophase, prophase

C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

D. interphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase

Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?

A. prophase, metaphase, interphase, telophase

B. anaphase, interphase, telophase, prophase

*C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

D. interphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase

During what stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the chromosomes become distinct?

A. prophase

B. metaphase

C. anaphase

D. telophase

During what stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the chromosomes become distinct?

*A. prophase

B. metaphase

C. anaphase

D. telophase

The nuclear membrane reappears in mitosis during

A. interphase.

B. prophase.

C. metaphase.

D. anaphase.

E. telophase.

The nuclear membrane reappears in mitosis during

A. interphase.

B. prophase.

C. metaphase.

D. anaphase.

*E. telophase.

In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?

A. interphase.

B. prophase.

C. metaphase.

D. anaphase.

E. telophase.

In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?

A. interphase.

B. prophase.

*C. metaphase.

D. anaphase.

E. telophase.

If the diploid chromosome number is 16, the chromosome number of each gamete will be

A. 4.

B. 8.

C. 16.

D. 32.

If the diploid chromosome number is 16, the chromosome number of each gamete will be

A. 4.

*B. 8.

C. 16.

D. 32.

Meiosis results in a change in chromosome number indicated by

A. 2n to 2n.

B. 2n to n.

C. n to 2n.

D. 2n to 2n in diploid organisms, n to n in haploid.

Meiosis results in a change in chromosome number indicated by

A. 2n to 2n.

*B. 2n to n.

C. n to 2n.

D. 2n to 2n in diploid organisms, n to n in haploid.

During what stage do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

A. prophase

B. anaphase I

C. anaphase II

D. metaphase I

E. metaphase II

During what stage do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

A. prophase

*B. anaphase I

C. anaphase II

D. metaphase I

E. metaphase II

Synapsis occurs during what stage of meiosis?

A. anaphase I

B. telophase II

C. metaphase II

D. prophase I

E. anaphase II

Synapsis occurs during what stage of meiosis?

A. anaphase I

B. telophase II

C. metaphase II

*D. prophase I

E. anaphase II

During what stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?

A. anaphase I

B. anaphase II

C. metaphase I

D. metaphase II

During what stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?

A. anaphase I

*B. anaphase II

C. metaphase I

D. metaphase II

During which phase will homologous chromosomes separate?

A. anaphase I

B. anaphase II

C. anaphase

D. metaphase I

During which phase will homologous chromosomes separate?

*A. anaphase I

B. anaphase II

C. anaphase

D. metaphase I

What lines up at the metaphase plate during metaphase II of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

A. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids at both

B. homologous chromosomes at both

C. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each chromosome composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis

D. homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for mitosis

E. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, homologous chromosomes for mitosis

What lines up at the metaphase plate during metaphase II of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

*A. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids at both

B. homologous chromosomes at both

C. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each chromosome composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis

D. homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for mitosis

E. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, homologous chromosomes for mitosis

What lines up at the metaphase plate during both metaphase I of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

A. each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids at both

B. homologous chromosomes at both

C. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each chromosome is composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis

D. homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids for mitosis

E. each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, homologous chromosomes for mitosis

What lines up at the metaphase plate during both metaphase I of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

A. each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids at both

B. homologous chromosomes at both

C. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each chromosome is composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis

*D. homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids for mitosis

E. each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, homologous chromosomes for mitosis

Which of the following statements is NOT true about oogenesis in humans?

A. It occurs in the ovary.

B. The egg will contain 23 chromosomes.

C. Four equal size daughter cells will form.

D. At least two nonfunctional polar bodies will form.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about oogenesis in humans?

A. It occurs in the ovary.

B. The egg will contain 23 chromosomes.

*C. Four equal size daughter cells will form.

D. At least two nonfunctional polar bodies will form.

In the human life cycle, fertilization results in

A. a zygote.

B. a gamete.

C. oogenesis.

D. a haploid cell.

In the human life cycle, fertilization results in

*A. a zygote.

B. a gamete.

C. oogenesis.

D. a haploid cell.

In the human female life cycle, meiosis begins

A. in the fetus.

B. at birth.

C. at the onset of puberty.

D. at the onset of menopause.

In the human female life cycle, meiosis begins

*A. in the fetus.

B. at birth.

C. at the onset of puberty.

D. at the onset of menopause.

Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same

location in homologous chromosomes are called

A. alleles.

B. phenotypes.

C. genotypes.

D. incomplete dominance.

Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same

location in homologous chromosomes are called

*A. alleles.

B. phenotypes.

C. genotypes.

D. incomplete dominance.

Which is NOT a correct association?

A. S stage-DNA synthesis

B. M stage-mitosis and cytokinesis

C. interphase-shortest stage of the cell cycle

D. G2 stage-metabolic preparation for mitosis

Which is NOT a correct association?

A. S stage-DNA synthesis

B. M stage-mitosis and cytokinesis

*C. interphase-shortest stage of the cell cycle

D. G2 stage-metabolic preparation for mitosis

Which of the following represents the physical characteristics of the individual?

A. phenotype

B. genotype

C. alleles

D. dominance

Which of the following represents the physical characteristics of the individual?

*A. phenotype

B. genotype

C. alleles

D. dominance

What are alleles?

A. genes for different traits, such as hair color and eye color

B. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes

C. the locations of genes on a chromosome

D. recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes

What are alleles?

A. genes for different traits, such as hair color and eye color

*B. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes

C. the locations of genes on a chromosome

D. recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes

The _____ indicates the gene combination of an individual.

A. phenotype

B. loci

C. genotype

D. homozygous

The _____ indicates the gene combination of an individual.

A. phenotype

B. loci

*C. genotype

D. homozygous

Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the law of independent assortment?

A. It is based upon the process of meiosis.

B. Each pair of factors separates independently.

C. All possible combinations of factors can occur in the gametes.

D. It follows the observation that all maternal chromosomes end up in the egg.

Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the law of independent assortment?

A. It is based upon the process of meiosis.

B. Each pair of factors separates independently.

C. All possible combinations of factors can occur in the gametes.

*D. It follows the observation that all maternal chromosomes end up in the egg.

Which is NOT true according to Mendel's law of segregation?

A. Each individual contains two alleles for each trait.

B. An individual can have either both dominant alleles, both recessive alleles, or

a dominant and recessive allele.

C. Alleles separate from each other during gamete formation.

D. Each gamete contains one copy of each allele.

E. Fertilization restores the presence of two alleles.

Which is NOT true according to Mendel's law of segregation?

A. Each individual contains two alleles for each trait.

*B. An individual can have either both dominant alleles, both recessive alleles, or

a dominant and recessive allele.

C. Alleles separate from each other during gamete formation.

D. Each gamete contains one copy of each allele.

E. Fertilization restores the presence of two alleles.

Mendel's law of segregation implies that the two members of an allele pair

A. are distributed to separate gametes.

B. are distributed to the same gamete.

C. are assorted dependently.

D. are segregated pairwise.

Mendel's law of segregation implies that the two members of an allele pair

*A. are distributed to separate gametes.

B. are distributed to the same gamete.

C. are assorted dependently.

D. are segregated pairwise.

In a Mendelian monohybrid cross involving two homozygous genotypes, the ____

generation is always completely heterozygous.

A. F1

B. F2

C. P

D. P2

In a Mendelian monohybrid cross involving two homozygous genotypes, the ____

generation is always completely heterozygous.

*A. F1

B. F2

C. P

D. P2

What will the genotypic ratio be of a monohybrid cross of two individuals who are both

heterozygous for a trait? Use the link in the instructions to an online Punnet square

frame.

A. 100% homozygous dominant

B. 50% homozygous dominant, 50% homozygous recessive

C. 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive

D. 50% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous

What will the genotypic ratio be of a monohybrid cross of two individuals who are both

heterozygous for a trait? Use the link in the instructions to an online Punnet square

frame.

A. 100% homozygous dominant

B. 50% homozygous dominant, 50% homozygous recessive

*C. 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive

D. 50% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous

A pheasant breeder starts with two birds in the P generation, one of which is AA and

the other is aa. If he takes two of the birds from the F1 generation and breeds them

together, what can he expect in his F2 offspring?

A. AA and Aa.

B. Aa and aa.

C. AA, Aa, and aa.

D. Aa only.

A pheasant breeder starts with two birds in the P generation, one of which is AA and

the other is aa. If he takes two of the birds from the F1 generation and breeds them

together, what can he expect in his F2 offspring?

A. AA and Aa.

B. Aa and aa.

*C. AA, Aa, and aa.

D. Aa only.

A woman who can roll her tongue (presumably dominant) is married to a man who

cannot. Two of their four children can roll their tongues and two cannot. If A = roll tongue

and a = cannot roll tongue, then what is the genotype of the parents?

A. woman Aa; man Aa

B. woman AA; man aa

C. woman Aa; man AA

D. woman Aa; man aa

A woman who can roll her tongue (presumably dominant) is married to a man who

cannot. Two of their four children can roll their tongues and two cannot. If A = roll tongue

and a = cannot roll tongue, then what is the genotype of the parents?

A. woman Aa; man Aa

B. woman AA; man aa

C. woman Aa; man AA

*D. woman Aa; man aa

Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, due to a recessive trait. If we locate a pea

plant that is heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it, and harvest the seeds, what are

the likely phenotypes of the resulting offspring?

A. All will be green with chlorophyll since that is the dominant trait.

B. About one-half will be green and one-half white since that is the distribution of

the genes in the parents.

C. About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it is similar to a

monohybrid cross.

D. About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white since it is similar to a

monohybrid cross.

Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, due to a recessive trait. If we locate a pea

plant that is heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it, and harvest the seeds, what are

the likely phenotypes of the resulting offspring?

A. All will be green with chlorophyll since that is the dominant trait.

B. About one-half will be green and one-half white since that is the distribution of

the genes in the parents.

*C. About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it is similar to a

monohybrid cross.

D. About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white since it is similar to a

monohybrid cross.

A cross is made between two parents with genotypes AaBB and aabb. If there are

32 offspring, how many of them would be expected to exhibit both dominant

characteristics?

A. 32

B. 24

C. 16

D. 8

E. 0

A cross is made between two parents with genotypes AaBB and aabb. If there are

32 offspring, how many of them would be expected to exhibit both dominant

characteristics?

A. 32

B. 24

*C. 16

D. 8

E. 0

In guinea pigs, B = black, b = brown, S = short hair, s = long hair. A heterozygous

black, short-haired animal reproduces with a brown, long-haired animal. What is the

expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

A. 1 black short hair, 1 black long hair, 1 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair

B. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair

C. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair

D. 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair

In guinea pigs, B = black, b = brown, S = short hair, s = long hair. A heterozygous

black, short-haired animal reproduces with a brown, long-haired animal. What is the

expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

*A. 1 black short hair, 1 black long hair, 1 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair

B. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair

C. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair

D. 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair

In humans, aniridia, a type of blindness, is due to a dominant allele A. Migraine

headaches are due to another dominant allele M. If a man who suffers from both

conditions (AaMm) marries a woman who suffers from both (AaMm), what are the

chances of an offspring expressing both traits.

A. 9/16

B. 3/16

C. 1/2

D. 1/16

In humans, aniridia, a type of blindness, is due to a dominant allele A. Migraine

headaches are due to another dominant allele M. If a man who suffers from both

conditions (AaMm) marries a woman who suffers from both (AaMm), what are the

chances of an offspring expressing both traits.

*A. 9/16

B. 3/16

C. 1/2

D. 1/16

In which kind of cross could you expect to find ratios of 1:1:1:1 among the offspring?

A. monohybrid cross

B. dihybrid cross

C. one-trait test cross

D. two-trait test cross

In which kind of cross could you expect to find ratios of 1:1:1:1 among the offspring?

A. monohybrid cross

B. dihybrid cross

C. one-trait test cross

*D. two-trait test cross

In guinea pigs, B = black, b = brown, S = short hair, s = long hair. Two heterozygous

individuals reproduce. The expected results are

A. 9 black long hair, 3 black short hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair.

B. 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 black short hair.

C. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair.

D. 9 brown short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 black short hair.

In guinea pigs, B = black, b = brown, S = short hair, s = long hair. Two heterozygous

individuals reproduce. The expected results are

A. 9 black long hair, 3 black short hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair.

B. 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 black short hair.

*C. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair.

D. 9 brown short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 black short hair.

What genetic disorder is associated with the lack of an enzyme necessary for the

normal metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine?

A. phenylketonuria (PKU)

B. Huntington disease

C. sickle cell disease

D. cystic fibrosis (CF)

What genetic disorder is associated with the lack of an enzyme necessary for the

normal metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine?

*A. phenylketonuria (PKU)

B. Huntington disease

C. sickle cell disease

D. cystic fibrosis (CF)

Which genetic disorder is associated with an irregular shape of the red blood cells?

A. sickle cell disease

B. Marfan syndrome

C. Huntington disease

D. cystic fibrosis (CF)

Which genetic disorder is associated with an irregular shape of the red blood cells?

*A. sickle cell disease

B. Marfan syndrome

C. Huntington disease

D. cystic fibrosis (CF)

What are the chances that two individuals with wavy hair (an incomplete trait) will

have a curly-haired child? Curly hair and straight hair exhibit incomplete dominance.

A. none

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

What are the chances that two individuals with wavy hair (an incomplete trait) will

have a curly-haired child? Curly hair and straight hair exhibit incomplete dominance.

A. none

*B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

The four o'clock flower is an example of incomplete dominance: R = red, r = white,

and Rr = pink. If two hybrids are crossed, what are the chances that an offspring will

have pink flowers?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

The four o'clock flower is an example of incomplete dominance: R = red, r = white,

and Rr = pink. If two hybrids are crossed, what are the chances that an offspring will

have pink flowers?

A. 0%

B. 25%

*C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

Traits that are controlled by several sets or pairs of alleles, such as skin color and

height in humans, are the result of what form of inheritance?

A. polygenic

B. incomplete dominance

C. simple Mendelian inheritance

D. codominance

Traits that are controlled by several sets or pairs of alleles, such as skin color and

height in humans, are the result of what form of inheritance?

*A. polygenic

B. incomplete dominance

C. simple Mendelian inheritance

D. codominance

Which of the following is an example of the blending of phenotypes?

A. codominance

B. polygenic inheritance

C. simple Mendelian inheritance

D. incomplete dominance

Which of the following is an example of the blending of phenotypes?

A. codominance

B. polygenic inheritance

C. simple Mendelian inheritance

*D. incomplete dominance

You have two true-breeding rose bushes, one with red flowers and one with white

flowers. A cross between these two roses yields a bush with pink flowers. What

condition does this demonstrate?

A. codominance

B. incomplete dominance

C. environmental effects

D. polygenetic inheritance

You have two true-breeding rose bushes, one with red flowers and one with white

flowers. A cross between these two roses yields a bush with pink flowers. What

condition does this demonstrate?

A. codominance

*B. incomplete dominance

C. environmental effects

D. polygenetic inheritance

When two or more genes with multiple alleles affect the same trait in an additive

fashion, it is termed

A. a double-trait cross.

B. codominant.

C. incomplete dominance.

D. polygenic inheritance.

When two or more genes with multiple alleles affect the same trait in an additive

fashion, it is termed

A. a double-trait cross.

B. codominant.

C. incomplete dominance.

*D. polygenic inheritance.

You have two true-breeding rose bushes, one with red flowers and one with white

flowers. A cross between these two roses yields a bush with white flowers that have red

splotches. What condition does this demonstrate?

A. codominance

B. incomplete dominance

C. environmental effects

D. polygenetic inheritance

E. monohybrid inheritance

You have two true-breeding rose bushes, one with red flowers and one with white

flowers. A cross between these two roses yields a bush with white flowers that have red

splotches. What condition does this demonstrate?

*A. codominance

B. incomplete dominance

C. environmental effects

D. polygenetic inheritance

E. monohybrid inheritance

Cold weather can change the ______ of a Himalayan rabbit.

A. genotype

B. phenotype

C. alleles

D. sex

Cold weather can change the ______ of a Himalayan rabbit.

A. genotype

*B. phenotype

C. alleles

D. sex

Hydrangeas are a flowering plant with large showy blooms. When a plant is grown in

aluminum-rich soil it has blue flowers. If the same plant is transplanted into soil that is

lacking aluminum, the flowers produced will be pink. This is an example of

A. codominance.

B. incomplete dominance.

C. environmental effects.

D. polygenetic inheritance.

Hydrangeas are a flowering plant with large showy blooms. When a plant is grown in

aluminum-rich soil it has blue flowers. If the same plant is transplanted into soil that is

lacking aluminum, the flowers produced will be pink. This is an example of

A. codominance.

B. incomplete dominance.

*C. environmental effects.

D. polygenetic inheritance.

In peas, yellow is dominant over green in seeds. With which of these is it best to

cross a yellow-seeded pea plant to determine whether it is homozygous or

heterozygous?

A. a green-seeded plant

B. a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant

C. a pure yellow-seeded plant

D. a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant or a pure yellow-seeded plant

In peas, yellow is dominant over green in seeds. With which of these is it best to

cross a yellow-seeded pea plant to determine whether it is homozygous or

heterozygous?

*A. a green-seeded plant

B. a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant

C. a pure yellow-seeded plant

D. a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant or a pure yellow-seeded plant

In a testcross, an organism with a dominant phenotype, but unknown genotype is

crossed with which of the following to establish its genotype?

A. homozygous dominant

B. heterozygous

C. homozygous recessive

D. heterozygous dominant

In a testcross, an organism with a dominant phenotype, but unknown genotype is

crossed with which of the following to establish its genotype?

A. homozygous dominant

B. heterozygous

*C. homozygous recessive

D. heterozygous dominant

A man with AB blood type can have a child with type O.

A. True

B. False

A man with AB blood type can have a child with type O.

A. True

*B. False

The location of a gene on a chromosome is called

A. a locus.

B. a linkage map.

C. a linkage group.

D. an allele.

The location of a gene on a chromosome is called

*A. a locus.

B. a linkage map.

C. a linkage group.

D. an allele.

Considering that males can have Klinefelter (XXY) syndrome, XYY, and normal XY

chromosomal combinations, and females can have Turner (XO) syndrome, poly-X (XXX,

XXXX), and normal XX combinations, it is obvious that

A. maleness results from the presence of only one X chromosome.

B. maleness results from the absence of two or more X chromosomes.

C. maleness results from the minimal presence of one Y chromosome.

D. femaleness results from the presence of two or more X chromosomes.

Considering that males can have Klinefelter (XXY) syndrome, XYY, and normal XY

chromosomal combinations, and females can have Turner (XO) syndrome, poly-X (XXX,

XXXX), and normal XX combinations, it is obvious that

A. maleness results from the presence of only one X chromosome.

B. maleness results from the absence of two or more X chromosomes.

*C. maleness results from the minimal presence of one Y chromosome.

D. femaleness results from the presence of two or more X chromosomes.

Genes on the ___ chromosome determine if the sex of a child will be male or female.

A. X

B. Y

C. 21st

D. 5th

Genes on the ___ chromosome determine if the sex of a child will be male or female.

A. X

*B. Y

C. 21st

D. 5th

A normal male marries a color-blind woman. What percent of their female children will

be color-blind?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

A normal male marries a color-blind woman. What percent of their female children will

be color-blind?

*A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

Color-blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. A male who is color-blind

marries a heterozygous woman. What percent of their total children will be color-blind?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

Color-blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. A male who is color-blind

marries a heterozygous woman. What percent of their total children will be color-blind?

A. 0%

B. 25%

*C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

A color-blind (recessive trait) woman will pass the allele to

A. her sons only.

B. all her children.

C. her daughters only.

D. none of her children.

E. her husband.

A color-blind (recessive trait) woman will pass the allele to

A. her sons only.

*B. all her children.

C. her daughters only.

D. none of her children.

E. her husband.

If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband has normal

vision, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind?

A. None, because the father is normal.

B. 50%, since the mother is only a carrier.

C. 100% because the mother has the gene.

D. 25% because the mother is a hybrid.

E. None since the son will also be just a carrier.

If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband has normal

vision, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind?

A. None, because the father is normal.

*B. 50%, since the mother is only a carrier.

C. 100% because the mother has the gene.

D. 25% because the mother is a hybrid.

E. None since the son will also be just a carrier.

Which of the following sex-linked diseases is characterized by the absence of a

clotting factor?

A. hemophilia

B. color-blindness

C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Which of the following sex-linked diseases is characterized by the absence of a

clotting factor?

*A. hemophilia

B. color-blindness

C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

C. deletion

D. monosomy

Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

C. deletion

*D. monosomy

A person who has an extra copy of a chromosome is said to have

A. monosomy.

B. trisomy.

C. nondisjunction.

D. duplication.

A person who has an extra copy of a chromosome is said to have

A. monosomy.

*B. trisomy.

C. nondisjunction.

D. duplication.

Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in

oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _____ resulted in

nondisjunction in ____.

A. XXY; oogenesis

B. XYY; spermatogenesis

C. XXX; oogenesis

D. XXY; spermatogenesis

Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in

oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _____ resulted in

nondisjunction in ____.

A. XXY; oogenesis

*B. XYY; spermatogenesis

C. XXX; oogenesis

D. XXY; spermatogenesis

When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed

A. linked genes.

B. nondisjunction.

C. crossover.

D. monosomy.

When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed

A. linked genes.

*B. nondisjunction.

C. crossover.

D. monosomy.

An individual who has an XXY combination of sex chromosomes is said to have

_____ syndrome.

A. Klinefelter

B. Turner

C. Down

D. cri du chat

An individual who has an XXY combination of sex chromosomes is said to have

_____ syndrome.

*A. Klinefelter

B. Turner

C. Down

D. cri du chat

A person with an XO genotype is classified as having

A. Down syndrome.

B. Turner syndrome.

C. Klinefelter syndrome.

D. a poly-X state.

A person with an XO genotype is classified as having

A. Down syndrome.

*B. Turner syndrome.

C. Klinefelter syndrome.

D. a poly-X state.

Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

C. deletion

D. duplication

Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

*C. deletion

D. duplication

Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another

nonhomologous chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

C. deletion

D. duplication

Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another

nonhomologous chromosome?

A. inversion

*B. translocation

C. deletion

D. duplication

If a chromosomal segment appears more than once in the same chromosome, it is

termed a(n)

A. translocation.

B. duplication.

C. deletion.

D. inversion.

If a chromosomal segment appears more than once in the same chromosome, it is

termed a(n)

A. translocation.

*B. duplication.

C. deletion.

D. inversion.

Which refers to the addition of a repeat segment of a chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

C. deletion

D. duplication

Which refers to the addition of a repeat segment of a chromosome?

A. inversion

B. translocation

C. deletion

*D. duplication

If a chromosomal segment is turned around 180°, the chromosomal mutation is

termed a(n)

A. translocation.

B. duplication.

C. deletion.

D. inversion.

If a chromosomal segment is turned around 180°, the chromosomal mutation is

termed a(n)

A. translocation.

B. duplication.

C. deletion.

*D. inversion.

All cases of Down syndrome are caused by trisomy of chromosome 21.

A. True

B. False

All cases of Down syndrome are caused by trisomy of chromosome 21.

A. True

*B. False

According to Lamarck, which variable would have the greatest influence on the

evolution of an organism?

A. the environment

B. the genetics of the individual

C. Both the environment and genetics are equally responsible for the evolution of

an organism.

D. Neither the environment nor the genetics of an organism play a role in its

evolution.

According to Lamarck, which variable would have the greatest influence on the

evolution of an organism?

*A. the environment

B. the genetics of the individual

C. Both the environment and genetics are equally responsible for the evolution of

an organism.

D. Neither the environment nor the genetics of an organism play a role in its

evolution.

Lamarck's proposal of the inheritance of acquired characteristics included the idea

that

A. the continual stretching of giraffe's necks to reach leaves led to longer necks

in offspring.

B. local catastrophes cause mass extinctions of species.

C. species are fixed and unchanging over time.

D. organisms are acted on by the environment.

Lamarck's proposal of the inheritance of acquired characteristics included the idea

that

*A. the continual stretching of giraffe's necks to reach leaves led to longer necks

in offspring.

B. local catastrophes cause mass extinctions of species.

C. species are fixed and unchanging over time.

D. organisms are acted on by the environment.

When he arrived at the Galápagos Islands, Darwin did not observe the amazing tool-

using "woodpecker finch" that can modify twigs to pry out grubs. Because there are no

true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands, this behavior allows this finch to exploit an

untapped food source. However, not all members of this species exhibit this behavior,

which is probably learned from watching other finches. Therefore, which of the following

is NOT true?

A. Young isolated at hatching will not know how to do this.

B. It is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically.

C. There must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned

behavior to be repeated by most descendants each generation.

D. This "learned" behavior will not lead to evolutionary change in the

woodpecker population.

When he arrived at the Galápagos Islands, Darwin did not observe the amazing tool-

using "woodpecker finch" that can modify twigs to pry out grubs. Because there are no

true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands, this behavior allows this finch to exploit an

untapped food source. However, not all members of this species exhibit this behavior,

which is probably learned from watching other finches. Therefore, which of the following

is NOT true?

A. Young isolated at hatching will not know how to do this.

B. It is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically.

C. There must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned

behavior to be repeated by most descendants each generation.

*D. This "learned" behavior will not lead to evolutionary change in the

woodpecker population.