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HIV-1
It is a more pathogenic strain than other HIV strains
Group M
HIV-1 group responsible for the majority of HIV-1 infections worldwide
B
Most predominant HIV-1 subtype in the U.S. and Europe
C
Most predominant HIV-1 subtype worldwide
HIV-2
Which HIV strain is predominant in West Africa?
Gp41/Gp120 complex
It is the primary envelope glycoprotein on the surface of HIV-1
p24
It is the nucleocapsid core protein of the HIV virus
p17
It is the matrix shell protein of HIV
Western blot assay
The most sensitive and specific test for HIV-1
p24
gp41
gp120/160
CDC criteria for a positive western blot test includes the presence of at least 2 out of 3 of these possible bands:
Use recombinant antigens instead of viral lysates
Repeat test with the same or fresh specimen
Testing with a new specimen obtained 4 to 6 weeks later
Resolutions for an indeterminate western blot result:
Bloodborne
Sexual contact
Vertical (mother-to-fetus)
What are the modes of transmission of HTLV?
ATL
HAM/TSP
HTLV-I is the cause of two diseases:
ATL
Characterized by a monoclonal proliferation of mature T cells that express the surface markers, CD3, CD4, and CD25
Downey cells
The blood sample of a patient suspected with Epstein-Barr virus has been subjected to peripheral blood smearing. Which cells are indicative of EBV?
Saliva
Blood transfusion
Transplacental
What are the modes of transmission of EBV?
Infectious mononucleosis (Kissing disease)
Acute infectious disease of the mononuclear phagocyte system
VCA
Antigen produced by infected B cells and can be found in the cytoplasm
EBNA
Antigen found in the nucleus of all EBV infected cells
4-7 days
Anti-VCA IgG is usually detectable within how many days after the onset of signs and symptoms?
1:56 or greater
Titer amount that is clinically significant in patients with suspected infectious mononucleosis
Paul-Bunnell Test
Heterophile antibody test in which sheep RBCs agglutinate in the presence of heterophile Abs
Monospot test
Rapid slide agglutination method which tests the ability of serum absorbed with guinea pig kidney or beef erythrocyte antigens to agglutinate horse red blood cells
Forssman
Type of heterophile antibody that is:
Absorbed by Guinea pig kidney cells
Not absorbed by Beef erythrocytes
IM
Type of heterophile antibody that is:
Not absorbed by Guinea pig kidney cells
Absorbed by Beef erythrocytes
Serum Sickness
Type of heterophile antibody that is both absorbed by Guinea pig kidney cells and beef erythrocytes
Cytomegalovirus
It is the most common cause of congenital infections
It is the most important infectious agent associated with organ transplantation
Immunocompromised patients
Amplification of CMV DNA by PCR is best for:
Virus isolation from neonatal urine or saliva within 3 weeks postpartum
A congenital CMV diagnosis is established by:
Togaviridae
Rubella virus belongs to the family:
Respiratory droplets
Transplacental infection
Rubella is transmitted through:
RT-PCR
The most widely used molecular method for Rubella
Serology tests
What type of tests are the most common means of confirming a Rubella diagnosis?
ELISA
It is the most commonly used serology test to confirm a Rubella diagnosis
1:16
1:64
1:512
Titer level/s found in acute and past infections of Rubella
Testing for IgM antibody
It proves to be invaluable for the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome in the neonate.
Congenital rubella syndrome
Demonstration of IgM in a single neonatal specimen is diagnostic of:
Rotavirus
The most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children
ELISA and Latex Agglutination
Which tests detect Rotavirus antigens in fecal material?
SLE
Chronic systemic inflammatory disease which has a strong association with HLA DR and DQ
Renal failure
It is the most frequent cause of death in patients with SLE
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN)
Most dangerous type of lesion in patients with SLE
Malar rash
Discoid rash
Photosensitivity
Oral ulcers
Arthritis
Serositis
Renal disorders
Neurological disorders
Hematologic disorders
Immunologic disorders
Presence of antinuclear antibodies
In order for a clinical diagnosis of Lupus to be made, four of eleven specific criteria must be present:
Homogeneous
Immunofluorescent pattern of Anti-dsDNA and Anti-histone
Drug-induced SLE
Anti-histone is associated with:
Anti-Sm
Which antibody is the most diagnostic for SLE?
FANA
Most widely used and accepted test for diagnosing SLE
Mouse kidney or human epithelial HEp-2 cells are fixed to a slide and allowed to react with patient serum
1:80 (1:160 if patient is <65 yrs old)
In FANA testing, is is now a common practice to screen with _____ dilution to avoid low positive titers in the normal population
Double-stranded DNA (ds-DNA) antibodies
Which antibodies are the most specific for SLE?
Anti-SSA (RO)
Antibody often found in patients with cutaneous manifestations of SLE, can bind to neutrophil surface and cause neutropenia
Anti-SSB (La)
Antibody found in only 10 to 20 percent of patients with SLE
anti-nRNP
Anantibody directed against Ribonucleoprotein complexed with a nuclear RNA called U1-nRNP
Antiphospholipid antibodies
Antibodies especially associated with deep-vein and arterial thrombosis and with morbidity in pregnancy
Patients with this antibody have an increased risk of clotting and spontaneous abortion
Clotting and spontaneous abortion
Patients with antiphospholipid antibodies have an increased risk of:
Nuclear rim (peripheral)
Staining pattern which indicates the active stage of SLE
Homogenous (solid/diffuse)
Staining pattern seen in rheumatoid disorders and other connective tissue defect
Speckled
Which staining pattern involves extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) such as Smith (Sm) antigen and ribonucleoprotein (RNP)?
Nucleolar
Which staining pattern is present in progressive systemic sclerosis?
Thready
Which staining pattern may be seen in SLE but not in RA?
Discrete, Speckled
Crest variant of PSS