ASCI243 - Digestive Systems and Digestive Physiology

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110 Terms

1
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What is classified as the digestive system?

The muscular tube from the mouth to the anus

2
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What are the primary functions of the digestive system?

Prehension, mastication, absorption, and elimination

3
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What is the definition of digestion?

The transformation of nutrients into compounds small enough to be absorbed and utilized as energy and tissue development and maintenance

4
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What things are classified as nutrients?

Protein, minerals, CHO, vitamins, and fats

5
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What is true of the digestive system in terms of endocrinology?

It plays a role in endocrine factors, such as regulation intake and metabolism

6
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What are some examples of regulation hormones in the digestive system?

Leptin and NPPY

7
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What does the digestive system do in terms of infections?

Protects against bacterial infection.

8
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What is the function of the mouth?

Collecting, holding, grinding, and mixing

9
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What is the function of the teeth?

Mastication and defense

10
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What is the function of the tongue?

Taste, mastication, and grooming

11
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What is true of the pharynx?

It is the common passageway for food and air

12
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What are muscles in the pharynx responsible for?

The orderly direction of food/air

13
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Where is the muscular tube?

Posterior of the pharynx to the stomach (i.e., posterior and anterior of the diaphragm)

14
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What is the role of the cricopharyngeal?

Function as a caudal sphincter (not to be confused with a strict sphincter)

15
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What type of GIT are humans?

Cucinovores

16
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What are the three types of herbivores?

Post-gastric fermenter, non-ruminant foreguts, and pre-gastric ferment

17
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What are carnivores?

Animals whose dietary requirements are primarily derived from animal tissue

18
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Which accurately describes the carnivore?

Short GIT and low coefficient of fermentation when compared to herbivores

19
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Which carnivore has the shortest GIT?

Cats

20
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What is true of the teeth and amylase of carnivores?

They contain tightly-interdigitated teeth that have a lack of salivary amylase

21
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What are the two types of carnivores?

Obligate and facultative

22
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What are obligate carnivores?

Animals that must eat meat to survive

23
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What are facultative carnivores?

Carnivores that can survive with limited meat (survive, not thrive)

24
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What is the justification behind the status of dogs as carnivores?

They have tightly-interdigitated teeth, a lack of salivary amylase, a coefficient of fermentation that is similar to the of obligate carnivores, and an innate behavior that mimics obligate carnivores.

25
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What is true of the giant panda?

They are carnivores

26
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What is the enigma surrounding giant pandas?

They are classified as carnivores, but eat the diet of a herbivore with 99% of their diet being bamboo.

27
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What is true of the bamboo diet of giant pandas?

They are required to spend 10-16 hr/day eating two varieties of bamboo

28
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What accurately describes the ruminant stomach?

A single, modified stomach with three distinct voluminous diverticular

29
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What accurately describes the non-ruminant stomach?

A single, simple stomach that is monogastric with hindgut fermentation

30
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What are the three voluminous diverticula of the ruminant?

The ruminoreticulum, the omasum, and abomasum

31
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Which is true of the ruminoreticulum?

The esophagus pumps directly into both the rumen and reticulum, but fibrous feed-stuff enter the rumen and larger particles + foreign objects go to the reticulum.

32
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What is the sulcus ruminoreticularis?

An esophageal groove that acts as a muscular wall that, when contracted, directs milk directly to the reticulum

33
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What are the two functions of the reticulum?

Transport liquid ingesta from the rumen to the omasum + sort large (foreign objects) into the ventral aspects

34
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What does the reticulum do in terms of foreign objects?

Further breaks them down or permanently stores the,

35
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What is true of the rumen?

It is an anaerobic fermentation chamber that is responsible for the breakdown of cellulose and hemicellulose.

36
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What occurs in the rumen in terms of CHO?

They are fermented into VFAs before being sent to the reticulum

37
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What is true of the omasum?

It is the primary site of absorption (i.e., H2O, VFA’s, electrolytes, and minerals) with some limited fermentation

38
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What is the abomasum?

The glandular stomach, also known as the “true stomach”

39
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What occurs in the abomasum?

Chemical digestion of dietary and bacterial proteins

40
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What non-ruminants contain a single glandular stomach (SGS)?

Carnivores and omnivores

41
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What modified non-ruminants are hindgut fermenters?

Equines

42
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What is true of the equine stomach?

They have a single stomach with a non-GS section and a GS section

43
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What is the role of the duodenum?

Connects the small intestine to the stomach

44
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What does the duodenum introduce?

Enzymes from the gall bladder

45
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What is true of the jejunum?

It is the site of primary absorption

46
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What occurs in the Ileum?

The absorption of bile salts and any left-over nutrients occurs

47
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What are the two primary sections of the large intestine?

The cecum and the colon

48
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What are the three parts of the colon?

The ascending, transverse, and descending

49
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What is true of the cecum in carnivores?

It is extremely small to nonexistent

50
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What is true of the cecum in omnivores?

It is a small, “blind sac”

51
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What occurs in the cecum of omnivores?

The absorption of fluids, enzymatic salts, and lubrication of waste

52
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In herbivores, what is true of the cecum?

As postgastric fermenters, their cecum has a complex role in digestion with an enlarged site of fermentation (cellulose)

53
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What are some examples of postgastric fermenters?

Equine, rabbits, rodents (insectivores), and koalas

54
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What is true of the cecum on ruminants?

It has an unknown role, but it does act as a site of limited fermentation and a site of storage and transition.

55
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What is true of the cecum in equines?

They have the largest and most complex cecum (~30 L)

56
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What occurs in the cecum of equines?

Bacterial fermentation similar to ruminants with VFA’s being absorbed in the descending colon

57
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What is coprophagy in terms of cecotropes?

Consumption of feces (i.e., consumption 1/day during morning or night)

58
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What accurately describes the mammalian stomach?

It is a simple stomach with four functional compartments

59
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What does the cardia stomach do?

Produces thick mucus and buffers for the protection of epithelial tissue

60
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What is the glandular aspect of the cardia stomach?

The cardiac glands

61
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What is the glandular aspect of the fundic stomach?

The oxytic glands

62
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What is the function of the fundic stomach?

The production of gastric acid, proteolytic enzymes, hormones, and mucus

63
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What are the glandular aspects of the pyloric stomach?

The pyloric glands

64
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What is the function of the pyloric stomach?

Produce mucus and buffers with no acid or enzymes

65
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What do G-Cells produce?

Gastrin

66
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What initiates the release of gastrin?

The stretch of body or the stomach initiates the release of gastrin

67
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What makes up the accessory glands?

Salivary glands, the pancreas, and the liver

68
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What are the primary salivary glands?

The parotid, mandibular, and sublingual

69
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What is the function of the pancreas?

Produce bicarbonate (HCO3) and digestive enzymes, like trypsin and chymotrypsin

70
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What is the function of trypsin and chymotrypsin?

Protein breakdown

71
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What is amylase directed at?

CHO’s

72
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What is lipase directed at?

Lipids

73
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What does the exocrine function account for in the pancreas?

95% of tissue

74
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What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

Glucose metabolism

75
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What is Beta cells in terms of insulin?

Initiates storage of glucose into muscle and liver

76
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What is alpha cells in terms of glucagon's?

Increase blood sugar (gluconeogenesis)

77
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What is S cells in terms of somatostatin?

Inhibits GH Secretions

78
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How many functions does the liver have?

500 essential tasks

79
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What is the primary function of the liver?

Homeostasis

80
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What are some additional functions of the liver?

Metabolic regulation, secretory, detoxification, and storage

81
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What does the liver store?

A, D, E, K, and B12 Vitamins

82
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What is vitamin K essential for?

The production of blood coagulants

83
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What is glycerol required for?

Gluconeogenesis

84
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What does the liver also produce?

Albumin and angiotensinogen

85
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What is albumin?

The primary protein of blood serum — transportation of lipids

86
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What is angiotensinogen?

A hormone that raises blood pressure in the presence of renin

87
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What is angiotensinogen apart of?

The renin-angiostein-aldosterone axis controlled extracellular fluid volume

88
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What is the liver apart of in terms of immune function?

The mononuclear phagocyte system

89
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What do krupffer cells do?

Encase and destroy disease-causing agents within the liver, such as bacteria and toxins

90
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What is true of the liver in terms of blood detoxification?

It involves bilirubin, hormones (estrogen and aldosterone), and toxins

91
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What is phase 1 of liver detoxification?

Enzymatic modification (biotransformation)

92
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What enzyme is involved in Phase 1 of liver detoxification?

Cytochrome P450 Family

93
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What does Cytochrome P450 Family do?

Alters toxins to make them more H2O soluble

94
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What is phase 2 of liver detoxification?

Conjugation

95
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What occurs in Phase 2 of liver detoxification?

Modification of toxins to neutralize, easier to excrete (i.e., conjugation with other compounds)

96
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What is oxidation?

A reaction that loses electrons

97
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What is reduction?

A reaction that gains electrons

98
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What accurately describes phase 1 of liver detoxification?

Modification of metabolites, toxins, and drugs to increase H2O solubility

99
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What is the first phase of alcohol liver detoxification?

Ethanol (C2H5OH) is oxidized to acetaldehyde

100
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What is the second phase of alcohol liver detoxification?

Acetaldehyde is oxidized to acetate