[02.06b] CMD - Disorders of Rhythm (Part 2) V2.1.pdf

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Last updated 12:17 PM on 8/20/26
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284 Terms

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Regular

What is the rhythm pattern of regular supraventricular tachyarrhythmias such as sinus tachycardia and SVT

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Irregular

What is the rhythm pattern of irregular supraventricular tachyarrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter

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Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation

What are the two major ventricular tachyarrhythmias discussed in the summary

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Benign

What is the typical clinical prognosis of ventricular premature beats

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First detected

What is the atrial fibrillation classification when the physician does not yet know if it is paroxysmal or persistent

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Less than seven days

What is the duration threshold for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation

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Sinus rhythm

In what cardiac rhythm does a patient with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation reside between episodes

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Seven days or more

What is the duration threshold for persistent atrial fibrillation

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Persistent

Which atrial fibrillation classification is crucial for making long term decisions like stroke prevention

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Greater than one year

What is the duration threshold defining permanent atrial fibrillation

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Stroke

What major neurological risk is increased in atrial fibrillation due to blood stagnancy in the weak left atrium

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Heart failure

Which cardiovascular syndrome promotes atrial fibrillation while simultaneously being aggravated by it

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Left atrium

In which specific chamber of the heart do thrombi typically form during atrial fibrillation due to blood stagnancy

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Mortality

Along with stroke and heart failure what primary endpoint is managed in AFib to prolong life

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Blood thinners

What class of drugs is used to prevent thromboembolic stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation

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Rate control and rhythm control

What are the two primary therapeutic strategies used to manage ventricular responses in AFib

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Hyperthyroidism

Along with heart failure hypertension and electrolyte abnormalities what endocrine disorder is a key etiology to treat in AFib

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Rate control

Which strategy controls the ventricular rate with no commitment to restore or maintain sinus rhythm

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Rhythm control

Which strategy attempts to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm in AFib patients

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AV node

What anatomical structure of the heart is targeted by rate control drugs to slow the ventricular response

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AFFIRM trial

Which major clinical trial demonstrated no difference in mortality or stroke rate between rate and rhythm control strategies

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RACE trial

Which clinical trial showed that rate control is not inferior to rhythm control for preventing death and morbidity

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Flecainide

Which Class Ic antiarrhythmic is a main rhythm control drug used in the Philippines

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Amiodarone

Which Class III antiarrhythmic is a major rhythm control drug in the Philippines

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They are not normally combined

What is the clinical rule regarding the combination of Flecainide and Amiodarone

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Dronedarone

Which rhythm control drug from Figure 2 is no longer available in the Philippines

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BGC

Where is Sotalol uniquely available in the Philippines according to the lecture

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Beta blockers

What class of drugs represents Class II rate control agents that slow the AV node

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Calcium channel blockers

What class of drugs represents Class IV rate control agents used in AFib

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Verapamil and Diltiazem

What are two specific non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers used for AFib rate control

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Digoxin

Which rate control drug is uncommonly used as a stand alone agent but slows down the AV node

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Bradycardia

What is a common side effect in elderly patients if their rate or rhythm control medications slow the ventricular rhythm too much

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Pacemaker

What device is used to manage a slow sinus node in elderly patients presenting with fast and slow sinus node dysfunction

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At least twelve hours

After how many hours of AFib presentation should IV heparin anticoagulation be considered

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Digoxin

In a patient with AFib at 160 bpm and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg what is the best drug to give

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Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers

Which rate control drug classes must be avoided in a hypotensive AFib patient because they further decrease blood pressure

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Pharmacologic and electrical DC cardioversion

What are the two primary options available for executing rhythm control

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Dofetilide

Which oral pharmacological cardioversion agent has proven efficacy as shown in Table 1

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Flecainide and Propafenone

Which two pharmacological cardioversion agents are available in both oral and intravenous forms

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Ibutilide

Which intravenous pharmacological cardioversion agent has proven efficacy as shown in Table 1

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Intravenous

Which route of administration for Flecainide is unavailable in the Philippines

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Stable patients

To what specific patient group is oral Flecainide given to terminate palpitations

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Two

How many oral tablets of Flecainide are usually sufficient to terminate atrial fibrillation in tolerant patients

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DC cardioversion

What procedure is performed if oral Flecainide fails to terminate AFib

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Hemodynamic instability

DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice in sudden AFib with what clinical finding

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Biphasic

If you are unsure whether a defibrillator is monophasic or biphasic which type should you assume it is

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Two hundred Joules

What energy level is usually selected for a biphasic synchronized shock in AFib cardioversion

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Over ninety percent

What percentage of patients establish normal sinus rhythm after receiving DC cardioversion

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Amiodarone Flecainide and Sotalol

What are three oral medications used for the long term maintenance of rhythm control in AFib

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Non-dihydropyridines

Which specific subclass of calcium channel blockers is used for long term oral rate control in AFib

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Mitral stenosis

What is the most common valvular lesion associated with valvular atrial fibrillation

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Rheumatic heart disease

What is the most common etiology of mitral stenosis in valvular atrial fibrillation

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Warfarin

What is the only anticoagulant indicated for stroke prophylaxis in valvular AFib

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Non-valvular AFib

What is the most common cardiac disease associated with cerebral embolism

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Five percent

What is the annual incidence of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation

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Six times

By how many times does non-valvular AFib increase stroke risk compared to normal sinus rhythm

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One of every six

What fraction of all strokes is attributed to atrial fibrillation

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Female

Which gender is no longer recognized as an independent risk factor for stroke in the updated CHA2DS2-VA score

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Two

A score of what value or higher on the CHA2DS2-VA system warrants mandatory anticoagulation

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Consider anticoagulation

What is the clinical recommendation for a patient with a CHA2DS2-VA score of one

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Two point five

What is the target INR when using warfarin for stroke prophylaxis in atrial fibrillation

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Two point zero to three point zero

What is the acceptable range for INR when titrating warfarin

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Mitral stenosis and prosthetic valves

In which two patient groups is only Warfarin indicated because DOACs have not been evaluated in clinical trials

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Aspirin and Clopidogrel

Which antiplatelet drugs have been shown by recent studies to have no role in stroke prevention in AFib

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Concomitant coronary artery disease

Under what specific clinical circumstance is Aspirin given to an AFib patient

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Direct Oral Anticoagulants

What does the modern acronym DOAC stand for

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Dabigatran

Which direct thrombin inhibitor is classified as a DOAC

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Rivaroxaban

Which Factor Xa inhibitor is administered once daily for non-valvular AFib

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Apixaban and Edoxaban

What are two other Factor Xa inhibitors used for stroke prophylaxis in non-valvular AFib

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Renal function

Upon what physiological parameter is DOAC dosing based as opposed to INR monitoring

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Creatinine clearance

What laboratory measure of kidney function is used to adjust DOAC doses

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One hundred fifty milligrams twice daily

What is the standard full dose of Dabigatran for patients with normal renal function

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One hundred ten milligrams twice daily

What is the reduced dose of Dabigatran for patients with renal insufficiency

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Twenty milligrams once daily

What is the standard full dose of Rivaroxaban for AFib stroke prophylaxis

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Fifteen milligrams once daily

What is the reduced dose of Rivaroxaban for patients with renal insufficiency

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Five milligrams twice daily

What is the standard full dose of Apixaban for AFib stroke prophylaxis

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Two point five milligrams twice daily

What is the reduced dose of Apixaban for patients with renal insufficiency

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Sixty milligrams once daily

What is the standard full dose of Edoxaban for AFib stroke prophylaxis

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Thirty milligrams once daily

What is the reduced dose of Edoxaban for patients with renal insufficiency

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Many drug-drug interactions

What is a major reason for shifting away from Warfarin to DOACs in clinical practice

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Green leafy vegetables

What dietary restriction is required for patients on Warfarin because it antagonizes vitamin K

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Radiofrequency catheter ablation

What procedure is performed on top of cardioversion medications to restore sinus rhythm in AFib

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Crossing the interatrial septum from the right

How does the electrophysiologist physically access the left atrium to perform catheter ablation

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Pulmonary veins

Along what anatomical structures in the left atrium are ablation lines drawn to isolate AFib foci

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MAZE procedure

What concomitant surgical procedure can open heart surgeons perform to ablate AFib pathways

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Point-by-point radiofrequency ablation

Which ablation method uses a heated tip catheter to isolate the pulmonary veins

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Virtual 3D image

What must be recreated during point-by-point radiofrequency ablation because cardiac structures are not easily seen in fluoroscopy

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Cryoablation

Which ablation method freezes the area around the pulmonary veins using balloons

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Left atrial appendage closure device

What device is indicated for stroke prevention in patients who are intolerant to blood thinners

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Left atrial appendage

What is the specific anatomical structure where thrombi usually form in the left atrium

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Plication of the left atrial appendage

What term refers to open heart surgeons tying up the left atrial appendage from the outside

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Right atrium

From which cardiac chamber does typical atrial flutter originate

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Sawtooth pattern

What classic ECG pattern is produced by typical atrial flutter

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Two hundred beats per minute

What is the typical atrial rate during typical atrial flutter

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Pediatric patients with congenital heart disease

In what specific patient population is typical atrial flutter more common

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Macro-reentrant atrial tachycardia

What is the alternative electrophysiological name for atrial flutter

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Stroke prevention and rate control

In what two aspects is the management of atrial flutter identical to atrial fibrillation

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No structural heart disease

In what clinical setting does paroxysmal atrial flutter typically occur

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Structural heart disease

With what clinical finding is chronic atrial flutter typically associated

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Three hundred beats per minute

What is the classic atrial rate of atrial flutter seen when the flutter waves are exactly one big square apart