Internal Medicine EOR: Gastroenterology and Nutrition (Smarty PANCE)

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Last updated 2:09 AM on 6/25/26
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272 Terms

1
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What is acute viral hepatitis?

Inflammation of the liver caused by hepatotropic viruses (HAV, HBV, HCV, HDV, HEV) - presents with jaundice, elevated transaminases, malaise

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What are the transmission routes for hepatitis viruses? Use mnemonic FECES-BLOOD

Fecal-oral: HAV, HEV; Bloodborne/sexual: HBV, HCV, HDV

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What serologic marker indicates acute Hepatitis B infection?

Anti-HBc IgM positive with HBsAg positive - indicates acute or recent infection

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What serologic pattern indicates chronic Hepatitis B?

HBsAg positive >6 months, anti-HBc IgG positive, HBeAg may be positive (high infectivity)

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What is the most common cause of chronic hepatitis in the US?

Hepatitis C virus (HCV) - often asymptomatic until cirrhosis develops

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What laboratory findings suggest acute hepatitis?

Markedly elevated ALT/AST (>1000 U/L typical in viral), elevated bilirubin, elevated PT/INR in severe cases

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How is chronic Hepatitis C treated?

Direct-acting antivirals (DAAs) - sofosbuvir-based regimens for 8-12 weeks, cure rate >95%

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What is autoimmune hepatitis and its characteristic findings?

Chronic hepatitis with elevated IgG, positive ANA or anti-smooth muscle antibodies, interface hepatitis on biopsy

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How is autoimmune hepatitis treated?

Corticosteroids (prednisone) plus azathioprine - lifelong immunosuppression often required

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What is fulminant hepatic failure?

Acute liver failure with hepatic encephalopathy developing within 8 weeks of symptom onset - high mortality without transplant

11
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What are esophageal varices?

Dilated submucosal veins in esophagus due to portal hypertension - most commonly from cirrhosis

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What is the most common cause of esophageal varices?

Cirrhosis causing portal hypertension (portal vein pressure >12 mmHg creates portosystemic collaterals)

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What is the classic presentation of bleeding esophageal varices?

Massive painless hematemesis in patient with cirrhosis, stigmata of chronic liver disease, hemodynamic instability

14
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What is the acute management of bleeding esophageal varices?

Octreotide IV, emergent EGD with band ligation, antibiotics (ceftriaxone), blood transfusion to Hgb 7-9 g/dL

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What is octreotide's mechanism in variceal bleeding?

Splanchnic vasoconstriction reducing portal blood flow and portal pressure

16
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What is the role of antibiotics in variceal bleeding?

Prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and reduce rebleeding - ceftriaxone or norfloxacin prophylaxis

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What is used for primary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding?

Non-selective beta-blockers (propranolol, nadolol) to reduce portal pressure - reduce first bleed risk by 50%

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What procedure is used when endoscopic therapy fails?

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) - creates shunt between portal and hepatic veins

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What is the mortality rate of acute variceal bleeding?

15-20% mortality with each bleeding episode despite treatment

20
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What is acute pancreatitis?

Acute inflammation of pancreas causing autodigestion - presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to back

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What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis? Use mnemonic GET SMASHED

Gallstones (40%), Ethanol (30%), Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion sting, Hyperlipidemia/Hypercalcemia, ERCP, Drugs

22
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What are the diagnostic criteria for acute pancreatitis?

Requires 2 of 3: characteristic abdominal pain, lipase or amylase >3x ULN, imaging findings of pancreatitis

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What imaging is preferred for acute pancreatitis diagnosis?

CT abdomen with IV contrast - identifies necrosis, fluid collections, complications (perform after 48-72 hours)

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What is Ranson's criteria used for?

Prognostic scoring system for acute pancreatitis severity - >3 criteria predicts severe disease

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What is the management of acute pancreatitis?

NPO initially, aggressive IV fluid resuscitation (250-500 mL/hr), pain control, early enteral nutrition (within 24-48 hours)

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What defines chronic pancreatitis?

Irreversible pancreatic damage with fibrosis, calcifications, and exocrine/endocrine insufficiency

27
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What is the classic triad of chronic pancreatitis?

Pancreatic calcifications, steatorrhea (fat malabsorption), diabetes mellitus

28
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What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

Chronic alcohol abuse (70-80% of cases) - requires years of heavy drinking

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What is the treatment for chronic pancreatitis?

Alcohol cessation, pancreatic enzyme replacement (lipase with meals), fat-soluble vitamins, pain management, treat diabetes

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What is esophagitis?

Inflammation of esophageal mucosa - most commonly from GERD, infections, or medications

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What are the most common causes of infectious esophagitis?

Candida (most common), HSV, CMV - typically in immunocompromised patients

32
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What are the endoscopic findings in Candida esophagitis?

White plaques or pseudomembranes that can be scraped off - cottage cheese appearance

33
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What are the endoscopic findings in HSV esophagitis?

Small, well-circumscribed ulcers with raised edges - punched-out appearance

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What are the endoscopic findings in CMV esophagitis?

Large, deep, linear ulcers in distal esophagus - occurs in severe immunosuppression (CD4 <50)

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What is pill esophagitis?

Medication-induced esophageal injury - common culprits: doxycycline, bisphosphonates, NSAIDs, potassium chloride

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How is Candida esophagitis treated?

Fluconazole 200-400 mg daily for 14-21 days (first-line for mild-moderate cases)

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How is CMV esophagitis treated?

Ganciclovir IV or valganciclovir PO for 3-6 weeks - may require maintenance in AIDS patients

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What is eosinophilic esophagitis?

Chronic immune-mediated esophageal disease with eosinophilic infiltration - presents with dysphagia and food impaction

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What is the treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis?

Proton pump inhibitors, swallowed topical corticosteroids (fluticasone), dietary elimination (6-food elimination diet)

40
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What is an anal fissure?

Linear tear in anoderm distal to dentate line - typically posterior midline, causes severe pain with defecation

41
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What is the classic presentation of anal fissure?

Severe sharp pain during and after bowel movements, bright red blood on toilet paper, constipation from pain avoidance

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What is the most common location of anal fissures?

Posterior midline (90%) due to relative ischemia - lateral fissures suggest Crohn's, trauma, or malignancy

43
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What is the initial treatment for acute anal fissures?

Conservative: high-fiber diet, stool softeners, sitz baths, topical nitroglycerin 0.4% or diltiazem 2%

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What is the mechanism of nitroglycerin in anal fissures?

Relaxes internal anal sphincter reducing pressure and improving blood flow for healing

45
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What is the definitive treatment for chronic anal fissures?

Lateral internal sphincterotomy - surgical division of internal anal sphincter (cure rate >95%)

46
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What is an anal fistula?

Abnormal tract between anal canal and perianal skin - usually from cryptoglandular infection/abscess

47
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What is Goodsall's rule for anal fistulas?

Anterior fistulas track radially; posterior fistulas track to posterior midline - helps predict internal opening

48
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What is the treatment for anal fistula?

Fistulotomy (unroofing fistula tract) or seton placement - surgery required for cure

49
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What disease should be considered with complex or recurrent anal fistulas?

Crohn's disease - causes complex fistulizing perianal disease

50
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What is gastritis?

Inflammation of gastric mucosa - can be acute (erosive) or chronic (non-erosive)

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What is the most common cause of acute gastritis?

NSAIDs - inhibit COX-1 reducing protective prostaglandins in gastric mucosa

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What is the most common cause of chronic gastritis?

Helicobacter pylori infection - causes chronic inflammation and increases gastric cancer risk

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What are the types of chronic gastritis?

Type A (autoimmune - fundus/body), Type B (H. pylori - antrum), Type C (chemical - NSAIDs, bile reflux)

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What antibodies are present in autoimmune gastritis?

Anti-parietal cell antibodies and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies - leads to pernicious anemia (B12 deficiency)

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How is H. pylori gastritis diagnosed?

Urea breath test, stool antigen test (non-invasive), or biopsy with rapid urease test during endoscopy

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What is the treatment for H. pylori gastritis?

Triple therapy: PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin for 14 days OR quadruple therapy with bismuth

57
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What are complications of chronic gastritis?

Peptic ulcer disease, gastric adenocarcinoma, MALT lymphoma, pernicious anemia (autoimmune type)

58
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What is the presentation of acute erosive gastritis?

Epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, upper GI bleeding in severe cases - often asymptomatic

59
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What is stress gastritis?

Acute gastritis in critically ill patients - prevented with PPI or H2 blocker prophylaxis in ICU

60
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What is rectal cancer?

Adenocarcinoma arising from rectal mucosa (within 15 cm of anal verge) - distinct staging and treatment from colon cancer

61
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What is the most common presenting symptom of rectal cancer?

Hematochezia (bright red blood per rectum) - also tenesmus, change in bowel habits, rectal mass

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What is the primary screening/diagnostic test for rectal cancer?

Colonoscopy with biopsy - allows visualization, tissue diagnosis, and assessment of proximal colon

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What imaging is essential for rectal cancer staging?

MRI pelvis - assesses depth of invasion, lymph node involvement, relationship to mesorectal fascia

64
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What is the TNM staging for rectal cancer?

T (tumor depth), N (lymph nodes), M (metastases) - determines treatment approach

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What is neoadjuvant therapy for rectal cancer?

Chemoradiation before surgery for stage II-III disease - improves local control and sphincter preservation

66
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What is the surgical treatment for rectal cancer?

Low anterior resection (LAR) or abdominoperineal resection (APR) - depends on tumor location relative to sphincter

67
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When is abdominoperineal resection required?

Tumors involving anal sphincter complex or within 1-2 cm of sphincter - results in permanent colostomy

68
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What tumor marker is used to monitor rectal cancer?

CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) - elevated in 60-70%, used for surveillance post-treatment

69
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What is the 5-year survival for localized rectal cancer?

Approximately 90% for stage I, 70-80% for stage II-III with appropriate treatment

70
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What is colon cancer?

Adenocarcinoma arising from colonic epithelium - third most common cancer in US

71
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What are risk factors for colon cancer? Use mnemonic FAMILY

Family history/FAP, Age >50, Male gender, IBD (UC, Crohn's), Lynch syndrome, high-fat diet/obesity

72
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What is the classic presentation of right-sided colon cancer?

Iron deficiency anemia, occult bleeding, vague abdominal pain, weight loss, palpable mass

73
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What is the classic presentation of left-sided colon cancer?

Change in bowel habits, hematochezia, pencil-thin stools, bowel obstruction

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What are the screening recommendations for average-risk adults?

Begin at age 45: colonoscopy every 10 years OR annual FIT OR Cologuard every 3 years

75
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What genetic syndrome causes most hereditary colon cancer?

Lynch syndrome (HNPCC) - DNA mismatch repair defect, accounts for 3-5% of colon cancers

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What is familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

Autosomal dominant APC gene mutation causing hundreds-thousands of polyps - 100% cancer risk by age 40

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What is the definitive treatment for colon cancer?

Surgical resection with adequate margins and lymph node removal - hemicolectomy based on location

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When is adjuvant chemotherapy indicated for colon cancer?

Stage III (node-positive) disease - FOLFOX or CAPOX regimen reduces recurrence

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What is the 5-year survival for stage I colon cancer?

>90% with surgical resection alone

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What is esophageal cancer?

Malignancy of esophagus - two types: squamous cell carcinoma (upper/middle) and adenocarcinoma (lower/GEJ)

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What are the risk factors for esophageal squamous cell carcinoma?

Smoking, alcohol, achalasia, caustic injury, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, hot beverages

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What are the risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

Chronic GERD, Barrett's esophagus (intestinal metaplasia), obesity, smoking

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What is the classic presentation of esophageal cancer?

Progressive dysphagia (solids→liquids), odynophagia, weight loss, regurgitation - late presentation common

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What is the gold standard diagnostic test for esophageal cancer?

Upper endoscopy (EGD) with biopsy - allows direct visualization and tissue diagnosis

85
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What staging studies are required for esophageal cancer?

CT chest/abdomen/pelvis, PET scan, endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) - assess depth, nodes, metastases

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What is Barrett's esophagus?

Intestinal metaplasia of distal esophagus from chronic GERD - precursor to adenocarcinoma (0.5% annual cancer risk)

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How is Barrett's esophagus managed?

High-grade dysplasia: endoscopic ablation (RFA) or resection; Low-grade: surveillance endoscopy every 3-5 years

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What is the treatment for localized esophageal cancer?

Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by esophagectomy - curative intent for stage I-III

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What is the prognosis for esophageal cancer?

Poor overall - 5-year survival 20% (often presents at advanced stage)

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What is stomach cancer (gastric adenocarcinoma)?

Malignant tumor of stomach lining - declining incidence in US but high in Asia

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What are the major risk factors for gastric cancer?

H. pylori infection (most important), smoking, high-salt diet, smoked/pickled foods, pernicious anemia, blood type A

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What is the classic presentation of gastric cancer?

Vague epigastric pain, early satiety, weight loss, nausea/vomiting - often asymptomatic until advanced

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What is Virchow's node?

Left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy - indicates metastatic gastric cancer (Troisier's sign)

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What physical exam findings suggest advanced gastric cancer?

Sister Mary Joseph node (periumbilical), Krukenberg tumor (ovarian mets), Blumer's shelf (rectal shelf)

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What is the diagnostic test for gastric cancer?

Upper endoscopy with multiple biopsies - allows visualization and histologic diagnosis

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What staging is required for gastric cancer?

CT chest/abdomen/pelvis, endoscopic ultrasound, laparoscopy for advanced disease - assess resectability

97
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What is the treatment for resectable gastric cancer?

Partial or total gastrectomy with lymph node dissection, perioperative chemotherapy improves outcomes

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What is linitis plastica?

Diffuse infiltrative gastric cancer causing rigid, leather bottle stomach - poor prognosis

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What is the 5-year survival for localized gastric cancer?

Approximately 70% for early stage, <30% overall due to late presentation

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What is gastroenteritis?

Inflammation of GI tract causing diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping - usually infectious